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Are you struggling for the Cisco 350-029 exam? Good news,Flydumps IT technical experts have collected and certified 445 questions and answers which are updated to cover the knowledge points and enhance candidates’abilities.With Cisco 350-029 preparation tests you can pass the exam easily and go further on Microsoft career path.

QUESTION 44
During the IPv6 address resolution, a node sends a neighbor solicitation message in order to discover which of these?
A. The Layer 2 multicast address of the destination node
B. The solicited node multicast address of the destination node
C. The Layer 2 address of the destination node based on the destination IPv6 address
D. The IPv6 address of the destination node based on the destination Layer 2 address

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which one of these statements is true of OSPF type 5 LSAs?
A. They are used to summarize area routes to other areas.
B. They are used in not-so-stubby areas to propagate external routes.
C. They are used to notify areas of the ASBR.
D. They are flooded to all areas except stub areas (external route).

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B are directly connected. Given the configuration, how many EIGRP routes will router B see in its routing table?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B are directly connected and running OSPF, but they are unable to form a neighbor relationship. What is the most likely cause?

A. The routers are not on the same network.
B. The network statements do not match.
C. The process number does not match.
D. The MTU does not match.
E. The OSPF cost does not match.
F. There is a physical issue with the cable.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 199.155.24.0 network are unable to reach the 16.10.0 network. What is the most likely solution?

A. Router ISP1 should be configured to peer with router B.
B. Router ISP2 should be configured with no synchronization.
C. Router ISP1 should be configured with no synchronization.
D. Router ISP2 should be configured with no auto-summary.
E. Router ISP1 or IPS2 should be configured with network 176.16.10.0 mask 255.255.255.0.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 49
Two BGP peers connected through a routed firewall are unable to establish a peering relationship. What could be the most likely cause?
A. BGP peers must be Layer 2-adjacent.
B. EBGP multihop is not configured.
C. The firewall is not configured to allow IP protocol 89.
D. The firewall is not configured to allow UDP 179.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
Which two of these steps are minimum requirements to configure OSPFv3 under IPv6?(Choose two.)
A. Configure a routing process using the command ipv6 router ospf [process-id].
B. Add the network statement for the interfaces on which OSPF will run.
C. Configure OSPF on the interface that it will run on.
D. Use the passive-interface command on the interfaces on which OSPF should not run.
E. Enable routing.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 51
You add the following commands into a routed topology: router eigrp 1 variance 3 traffic-share min across-interfaces. Users now complain about voice quality in your VoIP system. What should be done?
A. Add the command: router eigrp 1 traffic-share voice interface fast 0/0.
B. Reconfigure EIGRP to recognize voice packets.
C. Remove the variance from the configuration.
D. Reconfigure the VoIP system to use RTP sequence number headers.
E. Use an H.323 gatekeeper for your VoIP system to negotiate an H.245 uneven packet buffer.
F. Reconfigure EIGRP to version 2.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
Refer to the exhibit. How would you get the 1.1.1.1 network into the OSPF database?
A. Configure RTA as an ASBR.
B. Redistribute connected routes on RTA into OSPF.
C. Set up a virtual link between area 1 and area 0.
D. Set up a virtual link between area 1 and area 2.
E. Add a static route into RTB and enter it into OSPF.
F. Place a network 1.1.1.0 0.0.0.0 command into RTB.
G. Set up a unique router ID on RTA using an RFC 1918 address.
H. Change area 0 on RTB to area 1

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit. Router E learned about the PIM RP (designated as 7.7.7.7) from four different sources. Routers A and D advertised the 7.0.0.0 network via EIGRP. Routers B and C advertised the
7.0.0.0 network via OSPF. Considering that all four Ethernet interfaces on router E could potentially lead back to the PIM-RP, when router E receives the first multicast packet down the shared tree, which incoming interface will be used to successfully pass the RPF check?

A. E0
B. E1
C. E2
D. E3
E. None of these interfaces will be used to successfully pass the RPF check.
F. All of these interfaces would successfully pass the RPF check.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
The core of a network has four routers connected in a square design with Gigabit Ethernet links using /30 subnets. The network is used to carry voice traffic and other applications.Convergence time is taking more than expected. Which three actions would you take to improve OSPF convergence time? (Choose three.)
A. Increase MTU of the interfaces to accommodate larger OSPF packets.
B. Change the network type to point-to-point on those links.
C. Reduce SPF initial timer.
D. Increase hello interval to avoid adjacency flapping.
E. Enable OSPF.

Correct Answer: BCE

Free practice questions for Cisco 350-029 exam.These questions are aimed at giving you an idea of the type of questions you can expect on the actual exam.You will get an idea of the level of knowledge each topic goes into but because these are simple web pages you will not see the interactive and performance based questions – those are available in the Cisco 350-029.

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QUESTION 55
Which four services use the inner labels of an MPLS label stack? (Choose four)
A. MPLS VPN
B. switching path in MPLS core
C. Cisco MPLS Traffic Engineering and Fast Reroute
D. MPLS over ATM
E. VPN over Traffic Engineering core
F. any transport over MPLS

Correct Answer: ACEF
QUESTION 56
Which 4 statements regarding MPLS Label Stack Encoding is true?
A. A value of 4 represents the “Implicit NULL Label.”
B. A value of 0 represents the “IPv4 Explicit NULL Label.”
C. A value of 1 represents the “Router Alert Label”.
D. A value of 2 represents the “IPv6 Explicit NULL Label”
E. A value of 1 represents the “IPv1 Explicit NULL Label”
F. A value of 3 represents the “Implicit NULL Label”

Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 57
The mechanisms for distributing LDP are:
A. CEF and the FIB table
B. UDP and IP
C. A and B
D. RSVP and CEF
E. LDP and RSVP
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 58
Based on the following output in R1, which statement is true:
R1#show mpls forwarding-table 50.0.0.3 detail
Local Outgoing Prefix Bytes Label Outgoing Next Hop
Label Label or Tunnel Id Switched interface
19 17 50.0.0.3/32 0 Et0/0 192.168.0.14
A. If a labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 17, all the labels will be removed and a clear IP packet is sent to Next Hop 192.168.0.14 on Ethernet 0/0.
B. If a labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 17, the label is replaced with label 19 and the packet is sent out on the Ethernet 0/0 interface.
C. If a labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 19, the label is replaced with label 17 and the packet is sent out on the Ethernet 0/1 interface.
D. If a labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 19, the label is replaced with label 17 and the packet is sent out on the Ethernet 0/0 interface.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
What is the encapsulation mode for MPLS running on Ethernet?
A. Transparent mode.
B. Frame mode
C. Channel mode
D. Packet mode.
E. Tunnel mode.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
What IOS commands display MPLS label mapping on an LSR?
A. Show mpls ldp parameters
B. Show mpls ldp bindings
C. Show mpls forwading-table
D. Show mpls ldp discovery
E. Show mpls ldp neighbor detail

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Forwarding Equivalence Class (FEC) corresponds to which four of these? (Choose four).
A. Layer 2 circuits (ATM, FR, PPP, HDLC, Ethernet
B. Groups of addresses/sites-VPN
C. IPSEC Encryption Algorithm
D. A bridge/switch instance-VSI
E. Tunnel interface-traffic engineering
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 62
Which two statements about forwarding equivalence class (FEC) are true? (Choose two)
A. FEC might correspond to a destination IP subnet, but it might also correspond to any traffic class that the edge LSR considers significant.
B. FEC is a group of IP packets that is forwarded over a different path, but with the same forwarding treatment.
C. FEC is a group of IP packets that is forwarded over the same path, and with the same forwarding treatment.
D. FEC is a group of IP packets that is forwarded over a different path, but with the different forwarding treatment.
E. FEC is a group of IP packets that is forwarded over the same path, but with a different forwarding treatment.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 63
What is the role of Forwarding Equivalence Class (FEC) in MPLS?
A. FEC determines how to establish an LSP path.
B. FEC determines how IP packets are forwarded in MPLS LSP.
C. FEC determines how MPLS labels are stacked in LSP.
D. FEC determines how a group of IP packets are mapped to an LSP.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 64
In MPLS traffic engineering, which one of the following protocols is used for Path Setup?
A. BGP
B. OSPF
C. ISIS
D. RSVP
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 65
In the diagram, R1 is the head-end of a TE tunnel that terminates on R5. The red line indicates the protected link, and the gold line indicates the backup tunnel. Which router is the Point of Local Repair?

A. R2
B. R5
C. R3
D. R1
E. R4

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
Which methods would enable traffic to be forwarded along an MPLS TE tunnel (Choose 4.)
A. MP-BGP routing
B. Static routing
C. Policy routing
D. Autoroute
E. Forwarding adjacency

Correct Answer: BCDE
QUESTION 67
In the context of MPLS Traffic engineering, TE path calculation is conducted by:
A. TE middle point
B. TE tail end
C. Independent server
D. All TE nodes along the path
E. TE head end

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 68
Which two routing protocols support MPLS traffic engineering link information distribution? (Choose two)
A. OSPF
B. BGP
C. RIP version 2
D. IS-IS
E. EIGRP

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 69
Which statements are correct for forwarding traffic into MPLS TE tunnels? (Choose 3)
A. Autoroute causes the tunnel to be treated as a directly connected link to the head-end.
B. Autoroute causes the TE head-end to establish IGP adjacency with the tail-end over the tunnel.
C. Forwarding adjacency makes the TE head-end node advertise the Tunnel LSP into the IGP.
D. Forwarding adjacency supports unequal cost load balancing over multiple TE tunnels.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 70
Which three statements about MPLS traffic engineering (MPLS TE) are true? (Choose three)
A. MPLS TE supports admission control
B. MPLS TE tunnel traffic is a link attribute to compute the TE tunnel path
C. MPLS TE uses BGP extension to advertise link attributes
D. MPLS TE provides protection capability
E. MPLS TE uses RSVP to establish LSP
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 71
Which of these is not a component of MPLS traffic engineering?
A. trunk admission control
B. forwarding traffic to tunnel
C. information distribution
D. path selection, calculation, and setup
E. traffic patterns prediction
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 72
Which two statements about MPLS point-to-multipoint traffic engineering (P2MP TE) are true? (Choose two)
A. P2MP TE uses an OSPF extension that is different from the OSPF extension that is used in P2P TE.
B. Loose path is not supported in P2MP TE.
C. Multiple IP multicast groups can map to one P2MP tunnel.
D. Affinity is not supported in P2MP TE.
E. P2MP TE uses Constrained Shortest Path First (CSPF) to calculate paths.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 73
Where are MPLS point-to-multipoint traffic engineering packets replicated?
A. head-end router
B. branch-point router
C. midpoint router
D. leaf-point router
E. tail-end router

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 74
Which statement about MPLS Traffic Engineering class-based tunnel selection (CBTS) is not true?
A. Local mechanism is at the middle-point router.
B. EXP selection is between multiple tunnels to the same destination
C. Bundle members are configured with EXP values to carry.
D. The tunnel selection is configured on the tunnel master.
E. The tunnel master bundles the tunnel members

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
Which statement about MPLS Traffic Engineering policy-based tunnel selection (PBTS) is not true?
A. The tunnel that is not configured with the policy-class command acts as the default.
B. EXP selection is between multiple tunnels to the same destination
C. There is no requirement for IGP extensions
D. Tunnels are configured using the policy-class command and carry multiple EXP values.
E. It supports VRF traffic, IP-to-MPLS switching, and MPLS-to-MPLS switching
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
Which two models are the models of DiffServ-Aware Traffic Engineering? (Choose two)
A. Policy-based Model
B. Class based Model
C. Russian Doll Model
D. Global Tunnel Model
E. Maximum Allocation Model
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 77
Which three statements about the Cisco MPLS TE Fast Reroute (FRR) process are true? (Choose three.)
A. TE tunnels that are configured with the FRR option cannot be used as backup tunnels.
B. TE tunnels that are configured with the FRR option can be used as backup tunnels.
C. The backup tunnel that is used to protect a physical interface must have a valid IP address configured.
D. Interfaces must use MPLS global label allocation.
E. The source IP address of use backup tunnel and the merge point (MP) should not be reachable.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 78
Which statement about MPLS TE Fast Reroute (FRR) link protection operation is not true?
A. It requires a next-hop backup tunnel.
B. The backup tunnel terminates on the same tail-end router as the primary tunnel.
C. The point of local repair (PLR) swaps the label and pushes the backup label.
D. The restoration time is expected to be under 50 ms.
E. The backup tunnel can have associated bandwidth capacity

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
Which statement about MPLS TE Fast Reroute (FRR) node protection operation is not correct?
A. It requires a next-next hop backup tunnel.
B. Point of local repair (PLR) swaps the next hop label and pushes the backup label.
C. The backup tunnel terminates on the merge point (MP) where traffic rejoins the primary tunnel.
D. The backup tunnel can have associated bandwidth capacity.
E. Restoration time is expected under 50 ms.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 80
With the BGP peerings shown, which 3 solutions are most correct? (Choose three.)

A. rtrA and rtrD are route-reflector-clients; rtrB and rtrC are route reflectors part of the same cluster.
B. rtrA and rtrD are route-reflector-clients; rtrB and rtrC are route reflectors part of the different cluster.
C. rtrA, rtrB and rtrC are part of a confederation sub-AS and rtrD is part of a different confederation sub-AS
D. rtrA, rtrB are part of one confederation sub-AS and rtrC, rtrD are part of a different confederation sub-AS
E. rtrA, rtrB and rtrC are part of a confederation sub-AS where rtrB is a route reflector and rtrA, rtrC are routereflector-clients.

Correct Answer: BDE

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which three modes are the operating of HDLC? (Choose three)
A. asynchronous balanced mode (ABM)
B. normal response mode (NRM)
C. normal peer mode (NPM)
D. asynchronous client mode (ACM)
E. asynchronous response mode (ARM)
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 2
IP over DWDM management models (Choose two.)
A. Segmented Management
B. Integrated Management
C. Virtual Transponder
D. Traffic Management
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
Which three of these are optical channel data unit (ODU) overhead fields? (Choose three)
A. general communication channel 0 (GCC0)
B. section monitoring
C. reserved (RES)
D. general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1 GCC2)
E. tandem connection monitoring activation deactivation (TCM ACT)
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 4
What is one of the primary overhead fields associated with the Optical Payload Unit (OPU)?
A. path monitoring
B. tandem connection monitoring activation deactivation (TCM ACT)
C. Payload Structure Identifier (PSI)
D. multiframe alignment signal (MFAS)
E. section monitoring
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
In optical channel transport unit overhead (OTU OH), what are general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1/GCC2) used for?
A. for trail trace identification
B. as the backward defect indicator
C. to transmit information between OTU termination points
D. to extend command and management functions over several frames
E. General communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1/GCC2) do not belong to OTU OH.
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 6

What is the minimum hardware configuration of the multishelf Cisco CRS-1 system?
A. One route processor (RP) card and one modular services card (MSC)
B. One distributed route processor (DRP) and one S13 fabric card (SFC)
C. One line card chassis (LCC) and one fabric card chassis (FCC)
D. One route processor (RP) and one fabric card chassis (FCC)
E. One line card chassis (LCC) and one S13 fabric card (SFC)
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Cisco IOS XR software is partitioned into three planes: control, data, and management. Which three of these belong to the data plane? (Choose three.)
A. XML
B. RIB
C. FIB
D. QoS
E. PFI
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 8
Which statement about Software Maintenance Upgrade is true?
A. CRS-1 SMU can be applied to a different platform, and vice versa.
B. SMU is an executable code for running a process or libraries that are shared between the different processes.
C. SMUs for each release are individually downloadable from Cisco.com and come in the form of a tar ball.
D. SMUs provide software fixes for critical network down and qualification blocking issues. Therefore, every software defect has a corresponding SMU.
E. SMUs are release-specific. If an issue affects multiple platforms or releases, an SMU is built separately for each release and each platform.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
Cisco IOS XR has implemented a nonstop routing feature so that when RP failover occurs, the routing information can be recovered locally. Which protocol does not support the NSR feature?
A. OSPF
B. LDP
C. BGP
D. IS-IS
E. RSVP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
Which three components are included in the Cisco IOS XR infrastructure? (Choose three.)
A. modular line cards
B. shelf controllers
C. route processors
D. service processors
E. distributed service cards
Correct Answer: BCD

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which three modes are the operating of HDLC? (Choose three)
A. asynchronous balanced mode (ABM)
B. normal response mode (NRM)
C. normal peer mode (NPM)
D. asynchronous client mode (ACM)
E. asynchronous response mode (ARM)
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 2
IP over DWDM management models (Choose two.)
A. Segmented Management
B. Integrated Management
C. Virtual Transponder
D. Traffic Management
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
Which three of these are optical channel data unit (ODU) overhead fields? (Choose three)
A. general communication channel 0 (GCC0)
B. section monitoring
C. reserved (RES)
D. general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1 GCC2)
E. tandem connection monitoring activation deactivation (TCM ACT)
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 4
What is one of the primary overhead fields associated with the Optical Payload Unit (OPU)?
A. path monitoring
B. tandem connection monitoring activation deactivation (TCM ACT)
C. Payload Structure Identifier (PSI)
D. multiframe alignment signal (MFAS)
E. section monitoring
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
In optical channel transport unit overhead (OTU OH), what are general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1/GCC2) used for?
A. for trail trace identification
B. as the backward defect indicator
C. to transmit information between OTU termination points
D. to extend command and management functions over several frames
E. General communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1/GCC2) do not belong to OTU OH.
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 6

What is the minimum hardware configuration of the multishelf Cisco CRS-1 system?
A. one route processor (RP) card and one modular services card (MSC)
B. one distributed route processor (DRP) and one S13 fabric card (SFC)
C. one line card chassis (LCC) and one fabric card chassis (FCC)
D. one route processor (RP) and one fabric card chassis (FCC)
E. one line card chassis (LCC) and one S13 fabric card (SFC)
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Cisco IOS XR software is partitioned into three planes: control, data, and management. Which three of these belong to the data plane? (Choose three.)
A. XML
B. RIB
C. FIB
D. QoS
E. PFI
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 8
Which statement about Software Maintenance Upgrade is true?
A. CRS-1 SMU can be applied to a different platform, and vice versa.
B. SMU is an executable code for running a process or libraries that are shared between the different processes.
C. SMUs for each release are individually downloadable from Cisco.com and come in the form of a tar ball.
D. SMUs provide software fixes for critical network down and qualification blocking issues. Therefore, every software defect has a corresponding SMU.
E. SMUs are release-specific. If an issue affects multiple platforms or releases, an SMU is built separately for each release and each platform.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
Cisco IOS XR has implemented a nonstop routing feature so that when RP failover occurs, the routing information can be recovered locally. Which protocol does not support the NSR feature?
A. OSPF
B. LDP
C. BGP
D. IS-IS
E. RSVP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
Which three components are included in the Cisco IOS XR infrastructure? (Choose three.)
A. modular line cards
B. shelf controllers
C. route processors
D. service processors
E. distributed service cards
Correct Answer: BCD

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QUESTION 1
What is the purpose of an explicit “deny any” statement at the end of an ACL?
A. none, since it is implicit
B. to enable Cisco IOS IPS to work properly; however, it is the deny all traffic entry that is actually required
C. to enable Cisco IOS Firewall to work properly; however, it is the deny all traffic entry that is actually required
D. to allow the log option to be used to log any matches
E. to prevent sync flood attacks
F. to prevent half-opened TCP connections

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which of these is mandatory when configuring Cisco IOS Firewall?
A. Cisco IOS IPS enabled on the untrusted interface
B. NBAR enabled to perform protocol discovery and deep packet inspection
C. a route map to define the trusted outgoing traffic
D. a route map to define the application inspection rules
E. an inbound extended ACL applied to the untrusted interface

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
Which statement correctly describes the disabling of IP TTL propagation in an MPLS network?
A. The TTL field from the IP packet is copied into the TTL field of the MPLS label header at the ingress edge LSR.
B. TTL propagation cannot be disabled in an MPLS domain.
C. TTL propagation is only disabled on the ingress edge LSR.
D. The TTL field of the MPLS label header is set to 255.
E. The TTL field of the IP packet is set to 0.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Two routers configured to run BGP have been connected to a firewall, one on the inside interface and one on the outside interface. BGP has been configured so the two routers should peer, including the correct BGP session endpoint addresses and the correct BGP session hop-count limit (EBGP multihop). What is a good first test to see if BGP will work across the firewall?
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A. Attempt to TELNET from the router connected to the inside of the firewall to the router connected to the outside of the firewall. If telnet works, BGP will work, since telnet and BGP both use TCP to transport data.
B. Ping from the router connected to the inside interface of the firewall to the router connected to the outside interface of the firewall. If you can ping between them, BGP should work, since BGP uses IP to transport packets.
C. There is no way to make BGP work across a firewall without special configuration, so there is no simple test that will show you if BGP will work or not, other than trying to start the peering session.
D. There is no way to make BGP work across a firewall.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5

Spanning Tree Protocol IEEE 802.1s defines the ability to deploy which of these?
A. one global STP instance for all VLANs
B. one STP instance for each VLAN
C. one STP instance per set of VLANs
D. one STP instance per set of bridges

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which two of these are used in the selection of a root bridge in a network utilizing Spanning Tree Protocol IEEE 802.1D? (Choose two.)
A. Designated Root Cost
B. bridge ID priority
C. max age
D. bridge ID MAC address
E. Designated Root Priority
F. forward delay

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7
If a port configured with STP loop guard stops receiving BPDUs, the port will be put into which state?
A. learning state
B. listening state
C. forwarding state
D. root-inconsistent state PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of the STP PortFast BPDU guard feature?
A. enforce the placement of the root bridge in the network
B. ensure that a port is transitioned to a forwarding state quickly if a BPDU is received
C. enforce the borders of an STP domain
D. ensure that any BPDUs received are forwarded into the STP domain

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
When STP UplinkFast is enabled on a switch utilizing the default bridge priority, what will the new bridge priority be changed to?
A. 8192
B. 16384
C. 49152
D. 65535
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which of these best describes the actions taken when a VTP message is received on a switch configured with the VTP mode “transparent”?
A. VTP updates are ignored and forwarded out all ports.
B. VTP updates are ignored and forwarded out trunks only.
C. VTP updates are made to the VLAN database and are forwarded out trunks only.
D. VTP updates are ignored and are not forwarded.

Correct Answer: B