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Exam A
QUESTION 1
When initiating a new SSL/TLS session, the client receives the server SSL certificate and validates it. What does the client use the certificate for after validating it? Select the best response.
A. The client and server use the key in the certificate to encrypt all data in the following SSL session.
B. The server creates a separate session key and sends it to the client. The client has to decrypt the session key using the server public key from the certificate.
C. The client creates a separate session key and encrypts it with the server public key from the certificate before sending it to the server.
D. Nothing, the client and server switch to symmetric encryption using IKE to exchange keys.
E. The client generates a random string, encrypts it with the server public key from the certificate, and sends it to the server. Both the client and server derive the session key from the random data sent by the client.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2
Which three of these statements describe how DNSSEC prevents DNS cache poisoning attacks from
succeeding? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. DNSSEC encrypts all records with domain-specific keys.
B. DNSSEC eliminates caching and forces all answers to be authoritative.
C. DNSSEC introduces KEY records that hold domain-specific public keys.
D. DNSSEC deprecates CNAME records and replaces them with DS records.
E. DNSSEC utilizes DS records to establish a trusted hierarchy of zones.
F. DNSSEC signs all records with domain-specific keys.
Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 3
Which two of the following statements describe why TACACS+ is more desirable from a security
standpoint than RADIUS? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. It uses UDP as its transport.
B. It uses TCP as its transport.
C. It encrypts the password field with a unique key between server and requester.
D. Encrypting the whole data payload is optional.
E. Authentication and authorization are combined into a single query for robustness.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
When using Cisco SDM to manage a Cisco IOS device, what configuration statements are necessary to be
able to use Cisco SDM?
Select the best response.

A. ip http server
B. ip http secure-server
C. ip http server sdm location X.X.X.X
D. ip http secure-server sdm location X.X.X.X
E. ip http server ip http secure-server
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
In regards to private address space, which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.) Select 3 response(s).
A. Private address space is defined in RFC 1918.
B. These IP addresses are considered private:
10.0.0.0
172.15.0.0
192.168.0.0
C. Private address space is not supposed to be routed over the Internet.
D. 127.0.0.1 is also considered part of private address space, according to the RFC.
E. Using only private address space and NAT to the Internet is not considered as secure as having a stateful firewall.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 6
A firewall administrator received this syslog message from his adaptive security appliance. What can the firewall administrator infer from the message? Select the best response.
A. The server at 209.165.201.10 is under a smurf attack.
B. The server at 10.1.1.20 is under a SYN attack.
C. The client at 209.165.201.10 has been infected with a virus.
D. The server at 10.1.1.20 is under a smurf attack. Certkey.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams Certkey 350-018
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which two of the following statements are attributed to stateless filtering? (Choose two.) Select 2 response (s).
A. The first TCP packet in a flow must be a SYN packet.
B. It must process every packet against the inbound ACL filter.
C. It can look at sequence numbers to validate packets in flow.
D. It must implement an idle timeout.
E. It can be used in asymmetrical traffic flows.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
Which three of the following are attributes of the RADIUS protocol? (Choose three.) Select 3 response(s).
A. encrypts the password
B. hashes the password
C. uses UDP as the transport
D. uses TCP as the transport
E. combines authentication and authorization in a single request
F. commonly used to implement command authorization
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 9
Which two of the following commands are required to implement a Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series FWSM?
(Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. firewall multiple-vlan-interfaces
B. firewall module x vlan-group y
C. module x secure-traffic
D. firewall vlan-group
E. firewall module x secure-traffic
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 10
If an administrator is unable to connect to a Cisco ASA or PIX security appliance via Cisco ASDM, which four of the following items should be checked? (Choose four.) Select 4 response(s).
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A. The HTTPS server is enabled.
B. The HTTP server is enabled.
C. The user IP address is permitted in the interface ACL.
D. The user IP address is permitted in the HTTP statement.
E. The ASDM file resides in flash memory.
F. The asdm image command exists in the configuration.
Correct Answer: BDEF

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of an explicit “deny any” statement at the end of an ACL?
A. none, since it is implicit
B. to enable Cisco lOS IPS to work properly; however, it is the deny all traffic entry that is actuallyrequired
C. to enable Cisco lOS Firewall to work properly; however, it is the deny all traffic entry that is actuallyrequired
D. to allow the log option to be used to log any matches
E. to prevent sync flood attacks
F. to prevent half-opened TCP connections
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which of these is mandatory when configuring Cisco IOS Firewall?
A. Cisco IOS IPS enabled on the untrusted interface
B. NBAR enabled to perform protocol discovery and deep packet inspection
C. a route map to define the trusted outgoing traffic
D. a route map to define the application inspection rules
E. an inbound extended ACL applied to the untrusted interface
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4
Which statement correctly describes the disabling of IP TTL propagation in an MPLS network?
A. The TTL field from the IP packet is copied into the TTL field of the MPLS label header at the ingress edge LSR.
B. TTL propagation cannot be disabled in an MPLS domain.
C. TTL propagation is only disabled on the ingress edge LSR,
D. The TTL field of the MPLS label header is set to 255.
E. The TTL field of the IP packet is set to 0.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Two routers configured to run BGP have been connected to a firewall, one on the inside interface and one on the outside interface. BGP has been configured so the two routers should peer, including the correct BGP session endpoint addresses and the correct BGP session hop-count limit (EBGP multihop). What is a good first test to see if BGP will work across the firewall?
A. Attempt to TELNET from the router connected to the inside of the firewall to the router connected to the outside of the firewall. If telnet works, BGP will work, since telnet and BGP both use TCP to transport data.
B. Ping from the router connected to the inside interface of the firewall to the router connected to the outside interface of the firewall. If you can ping between them, BGP should work, since BGP uses IP to transport packets.
C. There is no way to make BGP work across a firewall without special configuration, so there is no simple test that will show you if BGP will work or not, other than trying to start the peering session.
D. There is no way to make BGP work across a firewall.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Spanning Tree Protocol IEEE 802.1 s defines the ability to deploy which of these?
A. oneglobal STP instance for all VLANs
B. one STP instance for each VLAN
C. one STP instance per set of VLANs
D. oneSTP instance per set of bridges
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which two of these are used in the selection of a root bridge in a network utilizing Spanning Tree Protocol IEEE 802.1 D? (Choose two.)
A. Designated Root Cost
B. bridge ID priority
C. max age
D. bridge ID MAC address
E. Designated Root Priority
F. forward delay
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8
If a port configured with STP loop guard stops receiving BPDUs, the port will be put into which state?
A. learning state
B. listening state
C. forwarding state
D. root-inconsistent state
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
What is the purpose of the STP PortFast BPDU guard feature?
A. enforce the placement of the root bridge in the network
B. ensure that a port is transitioned to a forwarding state quickly if a BPDU is received
C. enforce the borders of an STP domain
D. ensure that any BPDUs received are forwarded into the STP domain
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
When STP UplinkFast is enabled on a switch utilizing the default bridge priority, what will the new bridge priority be changed to?
A. 8192
B. 16384
C. 49152
D. 65535
Correct Answer: C

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
What is the purpose of an explicit “deny any” statement at the end of an ACL?
A. none, since it is implicit
B. to enable Cisco IOS IPS to work properly; however, it is the deny all traffic entry that is actually required
C. to enable Cisco IOS Firewall to work properly; however, it is the deny all traffic entry that is actually required
D. to allow the log option to be used to log any matches
E. to prevent sync flood attacks
F. to prevent half-opened TCP connections
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which of these is mandatory when configuring Cisco IOS Firewall?
A. Cisco IOS IPS enabled on the untrusted interface
B. NBAR enabled to perform protocol discovery and deep packet inspection
C. a route map to define the trusted outgoing traffic
D. a route map to define the application inspection rules
E. an inbound extended ACL applied to the untrusted interface
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
Which statement correctly describes the disabling of IP TTL propagation in an MPLS network?
A. The TTL field from the IP packet is copied into the TTL field of the MPLS label header at the ingress edge LSR.
B. TTL propagation cannot be disabled in an MPLS domain.
C. TTL propagation is only disabled on the ingress edge LSR.
D. The TTL field of the MPLS label header is set to 255.
E. The TTL field of the IP packet is set to 0.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Two routers configured to run BGP have been connected to a firewall, one on the inside interface and one on the outside interface. BGP has been configured so the two routers should peer, including the correct BGP session endpoint addresses and the correct BGP session hop-count limit (EBGP multihop). What is a good first test to see if BGP will work across the firewall?
A. Attempt to TELNET from the router connected to the inside of the firewall to the router connected to the outside of the firewall. If telnet works, BGP will work, since telnet and BGP both use TCP to transport data.
B. Ping from the router connected to the inside interface of the firewall to the router connected to the outside interface of the firewall. If you can ping between them, BGP should work, since BGP uses IP to transport packets.
C. There is no way to make BGP work across a firewall without special configuration, so there is no simple test that will show you if BGP will work or not, other than trying to start the peering session.
D. There is no way to make BGP work across a firewall.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Spanning Tree Protocol IEEE 802.1s defines the ability to deploy which of these?
A. one global STP instance for all VLANs
B. one STP instance for each VLAN
C. one STP instance per set of VLANs
D. one STP instance per set of bridges
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which two of these are used in the selection of a root bridge in a network utilizing Spanning Tree Protocol IEEE 802.1D? (Choose two.)
A. Designated Root Cost
B. bridge ID priority
C. max age
D. bridge ID MAC address
E. Designated Root Priority
F. forward delay
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7
If a port configured with STP loop guard stops receiving BPDUs, the port will be put into which state?
A. learning state
B. listening state
C. forwarding state
D. root-inconsistent state
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of the STP PortFast BPDU guard feature?
A. enforce the placement of the root bridge in the network
B. ensure that a port is transitioned to a forwarding state quickly if a BPDU is received
C. enforce the borders of an STP domain
D. ensure that any BPDUs received are forwarded into the STP domain
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
When STP UplinkFast is enabled on a switch utilizing the default bridge priority, what will the new bridge priority be changed to?
A. 8192
B. 16384
C. 49152
D. 65535
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which of these best describes the actions taken when a VTP message is received on a switch configured with the VTP mode “transparent”?
A. VTP updates are ignored and forwarded out all ports.
B. VTP updates are ignored and forwarded out trunks only.
C. VTP updates are made to the VLAN database and are forwarded out trunks only.
D. VTP updates are ignored and are not forwarded.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. In this network, R1 has been configured to advertise a summary route,
192.168.0.0/22, to R2. R2 has been configured to advertise a summary route, 192.168.0.0/21,
to R1. Both routers have been configured to remove the discard route (the route to null
created when a summary route is configured) by setting the administrative distance of the
discard route to 255.
What will happen if R1 receives a packet destined to 192.168.3.1?
Exhibit:

A. The packet will loop between R1 and R2
B. It is not possible to set the administrative distance on a summary to 255
C. The packet will be forwarded to R2, where it will be routed to null0
D. The packet will be dropped by R1, since there is no route to 192.168.3.1.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. In this network, R1 is configured not to perform autosummarization within EIGRP. What routes will R3 learn from R2 through EIGRP?

A. 172.30.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24; EIGRP only performs autosummarization at the edge between two major networks.
B. 172.30.0.0/16 and 10.1.2.0/24; R2 will perform autosummarization, although R1 will not.
C. Since R2 is configured without autosummarization, it will not propagate the 172.30.1.0/24 route.
D. 172.30.0.0/8 and 10.0.0.0/8.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
The classic Spanning Tree Protocol (802.1D 1998) uses which sequence of variables to determine the best received BPDU?
A. 1) lowest root bridge id, 2) lowest sender bridge id, 3) lowest port id, 4) lowest root path cost
B. 1) lowest root path cost, 2) lowest root bridge id, 3) lowest sender bridge id, 4) lowest sender port id
C. 1) lowest root bridge id, 2) lowest sender bridge id, 3) lowest root path cost 4) lowest sender port id
D. 1) lowest root bridge id, 2) lowest root path cost, 3) lowest sender bridge id, 4) lowest sender port id
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which three port states are used by RSTP 802.1w? (Choose three.)
A. Listening
B. Learning
C. Forwarding
D. Blocking
E. Discarding
F. Disabled
Correct Answer: BCE

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Refer to the exhibit. Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?

A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
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A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 5 Cisco 200-101 Exam

A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reasons that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 6 Cisco 200-101 Exam

A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 6
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
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Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the
correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)

A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root

Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 8
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
A. discarding
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. disabled

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 10
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which scheduling and management application can be installed on any hardware platform that meets the minimum specifications that the end customer decides to deploy?
A. Cisco Video Communications
B. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
C. Cisco Digital Media Manager
D. Cisco TelePresence Management Switch
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
When scheduling a multipoint conference, which three devices are required for the conference to be scheduled and completed successfully? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. multipoint control unit
C. video conferencing endpoints
D. Cisco Unity Connection
E. Cisco Unified IM and Presence
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3
Which encoder is best suited for professional, studio-quality audio and video processing?
A. Scientific Atlanta Encoder
B. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 1000
C. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 2000
D. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 3000
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which of these is the core component of the Cisco Video Surveillance product suite that handles recording and serving of video feeds?
A. Video Communications Server
B. Cisco IP camera
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Operations Manager
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco Video Surveillance product contains the Cisco Video Surveillance Encoding Server?
A. Video Communications Server
B. Cisco Video Surveillance Operations Manager
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Transcoding and Encoding Server
E. Cisco Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6

Cisco Video Surveillance Video Encoder cards perform which function?
A. the ability to use existing analog equipment with an IP-enabled video surveillance system
B. the ability to convert low-resolution video to high-definition video for video surveillance
C. the ability to stream digital media to digital media in an IP-enabled video recording environment
D. the ability to encrypt raw video signals to secure video signals
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
In an ISR Cisco Video Management and Storage System, what is the maximum storage capacity allowed per module?
A. 1 TB per module
B. 2 TB per module
C. 3 TB per module
D. 500 MB per module
E. 750 MB per module
F. 850 MB per module
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which two issues does utilizing an IP network storage solution for IP video surveillance help overcome? (Choose two.)
A. analog to IP conversion
B. large, expandable storage space
C. physical security
D. scalability
E. faster bit rate for storage
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 9
Which Cisco TelePresence multipoint platform utilizes only Cisco Unified Communications Manager for call control?
A. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit
B. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Switch
C. Cisco TelePresence Server
D. Cisco TelePresence Media Bridge Server
E. Cisco TelePresence System 500-32
F. Cisco TelePresence SX20
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which Cisco Video Surveillance device is responsible for providing video streams to monitors after the respective layouts and views are received by the monitors?
A. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Operations Manager
B. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix Viewer
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Manager
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
Correct Answer: D

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which statement is correct regarding the difference between Multisite and Multi way conferencing?
A. Multisite requires the Multisite options key to be installed and configured at the endpoint, whereas Multi way requires a Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server and a centralized multipoint unit.
B. Multisite requires configuration on the endpoint, whereas Multi way requires the Multi way options key to be installed.
C. Multisite requires the presence of a multipoint control unit, whereas Multi way relies on the endpoint conferencing capacity.
D. Multisite is used to Conference in multiple sites, whereas Multi way is initiate multipoint conferencing

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
When scheduling a multipoint conference, which three devices are required for the conference to be scheduled and completed successfully? (Choose three)
A. Cisco Unified Communication Manager
B. Multipoint control unit
C. Cisco Unity Connection
D. Video conferencing endpoints
E. Cisco Unified IM and Presence

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 3
Which two layouts or switching mode are supported with Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Switch? (Choose two)
A. Speaker switching
B. Active speaker switching
C. Active continuous presence
D. Room switching
E. Enabled continuous presence
F. Continuous presence

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 4
Which two Cisco TelePresence systems would be appropriate for an execute personal office? (Choose two)
A. Cisco TelePresence System 500
B. Cisco TelePresence EX Series
C. Cisco Jabber
D. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence
E. Cisco IP Video Phone E20
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Which encoder is best suited for professional, studio-quality audio and video processing?
A. Scientific Atlanta Encoder
B. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 2000
C. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 1000
D. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 3000

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
You have been informed from the field that a new Cisco TelePresence video endpoint has been deployed with an IPv4 address of 172.28.256.45. Which three devices could you use to see if the endpoint is required and available for a call? (Choose three)
A. Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server
B. Cisco 3250 Layer 2/3 Switch
C. Active Directory Server
D. Cisco Giga Switch Router
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager server
F. Cisco TelePresence Manager Suite server

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which two settings that could be dialed to start a multipoint conference that is hosted by the multipoint control? (Choose two).

A. [email protected] local
B. 5919
C. [email protected] local
D. [email protected] local
E. ex90
F. 52900121

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Which SIP URI should be dialed in order to reach the endpoint that is registered with the IP address 172.29.1.221 from another endpoint with a URI of sip [email protected] test?
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 8 Cisco 200-001 Exam

A. [email protected] local
B. ex90
C. sip [email protected] local
D. 172.29.1.221
E. 529000121

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which two of these are required in order to complete the password recovery of a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint? (Choose two)
A. Must have the security question answer for the endpoint
B. Must be in the same room as the main display
C. Must have SSH enabled on the endpoint
D. Must have FTP enabled on the endpoint
E. Must have SFTP enabled on the endpoint
F. Must call Cisco TAC for the security code

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. You have just finished installing a 65-inch profile system in a multipurpose room. After powering up entire system, only one display is used. Using the information in the exhibit, why is the second display not displaying anything from the system?

“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 14 Cisco 200-001 Exam
A. The dual display option key has not been input into the codec.
B. The codex has the appropriate option keys installed, so entire the display is not cabled correctly, the codec is configured correctly, the codec is configured incorrectly, or there is no input being sent to the display.
C. The Cisco TelePresence profile systems do not support dual display.
D. The display is not powered on.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
A particular UCS system has 8 fiber channel uplinks c0nfigured How many VSANs are Supported by this configuration?
A. four.
B. eight.
C. sixteen.
D. thirty-two.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
You are enabling AAA RADIUS/TACACS+ on a UCS which attribute must be added to the User account?
A. Encryption algorithm.
B. Shared Secret Key
C. Security policy
D. CiscoAvPair

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which Cisco UCS feature enables the administrator to send specific functional data using call home?
A. call home port groups
B. call home alert groups
C. call home threshold groups
D. call home profiles

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
In Cisco Nexus 1000V deployments which two statements are true (Choose two.)
A. Vmware provides the VNIC and drivers
B. Vmware provides the VNIC and Cisco provides the drivers
C. Cisco provides the switching and management of switching
D. Cisco provides the switching and Vmware provides the management of switching

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which two aspects of a UCS solution enable fast response to growth requirements in the data center? (Choose two)
A. UCS Manager
B. fabric interconnect
C. service profiles
D. expansion modules
E. virtual interface cards

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which three objects represent pools used in Mobile Service Profiles in the Cisco UCS? (Choose three)
A. WWN
B. VSAN
C. UUID
D. MAC
E. VU\N

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which three pieces of information are contained in a Service Profile for related vNICs?(Choose three)
A. MAC address
B. MTU
C. IP address
D. VLAN connectivity information
E. UUID

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
Which connection type is available on a virtual switch?
A. service console port
B. ESX machine port group C. virtual machine port group

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which components of the UCS solution include beacon LEDs? (Choose two)
A. monitors
B. fabric interconnect
C. blades
D. expansion modules
E. chassis

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which feature allows users to be granted granular permission Sets based on their responsibilities?
A. Organization
B. AAA
C. RBAC
D. Groups

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following accounts in the Windows OS will you advise the Certkiller trainee technician to use to install CD One?
A. root
B. administrator
C. guest
D. admin
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements regarding the Java plug-in is valid?
A. The use of the Java plug-in is not compulsory for all CiscoWorks2000 applications.
B. CiscoView must use the Java plug-in even if “Java Plug-in Use” option is not set on the CiscoWorks2000 Server.
C. The Java plug-in is loaded by default every time the client accesses an application that uses the plug-in.
D. The use of the Java plug-in is mandatory for all CiscoWorks2000 applicatoons if the “Java Plug-in Use” option is enabled on the CiscoWorks2000 Server.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which CiscoWorks2000 Server component is responsible for discovering the network as well as the device information for Campus applications?
A. ANI
B. CDP
C. SNMP
D. Resource Manager Essentials (RME)
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements regarding the integration utility is valid?
A. Integration Utility must be installed on the same system as the CiscoWorks2000 Server.
B. Integration Utility provides a launch point for CiscoView by selecting a Cisco device from an NMS map.
C. Integration Utility provides access to third-party management applications from the CiscoWorks2000 Server.
D. CiscoWorks2000 Server and NMS platform can rin on different platforms, but the OS must be the same.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which of the following represents valid retrival options for Network Management Integration Database (NMIDB)? (Choose all that apply.)
A. TFTP
B. Local file system
C. Import from NMS
D. Cisco Connection Online (CCO)
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6
VPN/Security Management Solution (VMS) configure or monitor can configure which of the following devices? (Choose all that apply.)
A. CiscoSecure ACS
B. VPN 3000 Concentrators
C. Intrusion Detection System (IDS) sensors
D. All firewalls
E. IOS routers
F. PIX firewalls
Correct Answer: BCEF

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Operation of IP Data Networks QUESTION 1
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 2

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3
Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A. application
B. session
C. transport
D. network
E. data link
F. physical
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?

A. broadcast domains
B. repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the source physical address be in the frame when it reaches host B?

A. 10.168.10.99
B. 10.168.11.88
C. A1:A1:A1:A1:A1:A1
D. B2:B2:B2:B2:B2:B2
E. C3:C3:C3:C3:C3:C3
F. D4:D4:D4:D4:D4:D4
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?

A. abcd.1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222

D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?
A. bridge
B. hub C. NIC
D. router
E. switch
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. The host in Kiev sends a request for an HTML document to the server in Minsk. What will be the source IP address of the packet as it leaves the Kiev router?

A. 10.1.0.1
B. 10.1.0.5

C. 10.1.0.6
D. 10.1.0.14
E. 10.1.1.16
F. 10.1.2.8
Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 1
How does a switch differ from a hub?
A. A switch does not induce any latency into the frame transfer time.
B. A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly-connected devices.
C. A switch operates at a lower, more efficient layer of the OSI model.
D. A switch decreases the number of broadcast domains.
E. A switch decreases the number of collision domains.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
How does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two.)
A. TCP provides best effort delivery.
B. TCP provides synchronized communication.
C. TCP segments are essentially datagrams.
D. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.
E. TCP uses broadcast delivery.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.0.50
C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff

F. 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6
The network manager has requested a 300-workstation expansion of the network. The workstations are to be installed in a single broadcast domain, but each workstation must have its own collision domain. The expansion is to be as cost-effective as possible while still meeting the requirements. Which three items will adequately fulfill the request? (Choose three).
A. one IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0
B. two IP subnets with a mask of 255.255.255.0
C. seven 48-port hubs
D. seven 48-port switches
E. one router interface
F. seven router interfaces
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 7
What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two.)
A. TFTP
B. SMTP
C. SNMP
D. FTP
E. DNS
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown in the exhibit. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports.
E. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit is showing the topology and the MAC address table. Host A sends a data frame to host D. What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
A. The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.
B. The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host A.
C. The switch will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.
D. The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

If the resume command is entered after the sequence that is shown in the exhibit, which router prompt will be displayed?
A. Router1>
B. Router1#
C. Router2>
D. Router2#
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

Which default gateway address should be assigned to HostA?
A. 192.168.1.1
B. 192.168.1.65
C. 192.168.1.66
D. 192.168.1.129
E. 10.1.1.1
F. 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.

A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.

All devices attached to the network are shown. How many collision domains are present in this network?
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
E. 15
Correct Answer: E