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For what? Exam 62-193: Technology Literacy for Educators

For what Exam 62-193

Microsoft Certified Educator (MCE) certification is ideal for educators-in-training, faculties of teacher training colleges, and in-service educators.

Facilitate Student Collaboration
Facilitate Skilled Communication
Facilitate Knowledge Construction
Facilitate Self-Regulation
Facilitate Real World Problem Solving and Innovation
Facilitate Student use of Information and Communication Tools (ICT)
Use ICT to be an Effective Educator

More visit official：https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/62-193

Technology Literacy for Educators 62-193 Exam format and sample questions(1-13)

62-193 Exam format and sample questions

QUESTION 1
You want to track and manage student\\’s performance data.
Which type of application should you use?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. desktop publishing
B. presentation
C. spreadsheet
D. word processing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You plan to use ICT to prepare an effective persuasive writing lesson.
What should you do?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Use the Internet to find a complete, ready-made lesson to use with the students.
B. Use the Internet to find teaching resources to discuss with the students.
C. Use spell check software to improve your lesson plan.
D. Scan sections of the class textbook to use as reference.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You are preparing to teach the second mathematics lesson.
Which two tasksshould you perform to ensure that the students benefit most from working in the computer lab? (Each
correctanswer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Verify that the Internet connection is only available on the teacher\\’s computer.
B. Verify that the printer has enough paper.
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C. Ensure that the data projector works.
D. Verify that the computers have the appropriate software installed.
E. Ensure that the USB drives have free space available.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4
In addition to learning about symmetry, how else should the students benefit from using ICT during the second
mathematics lesson? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study
button below.
A. ICT will teach them data entry skills.
B. ICT will teach them computer programming skills.
C. ICT will help them develop presentation skills.
D. ICT will help them develop collaboration skills.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
The school recently implemented the planned ICT changes and deployed laptops in your classroom.
Some of the laptops can access to the Internet, while others cannot.
You want to ensure that all of the laptops can access the Internet.
What should you verify?
A. the wired network connection of the laptops
B. the wireless network connection of the laptops
C. whether the Internet router is on
D. whether the laptops are plugged into a power outlet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
The parents worry that the students will be distracted if they use their laptop during the lessons.
What should you tell the parents to reassure them that this will not occur?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. The teacher will send the students out of the classroom if they misuse their laptop.
B. The teacher will confiscate the laptops if the students misuse them.
C. The teacher will ensure that all of the lessons incorporate the use of a laptop.
D. The teacher will only allow the use of the laptops during lessons that specifically benefit from the use of ICT
resources.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You want your students to analyze the costs of running a business.
You plan a visit with your students to a business center that sells business services.
The business center offers the following services.
Printing
Photocopying
Web site design
Document scanning
Word processing and editing.
What should you include as part of your classroom activities?
A. Give an assignment during which the students will read three case studies about office service businesses.
Summarize the students\\’ findings in a word processing document.
B. Run a research project during which the students will use the Internet to compile a list of prices of various business
services.
C. Run a three-day project during which the students will set up their own office service business at the school and sell
business services to the students and the staff.
D. Run a two-hour project during which you will provide reference information on the cost of equipment, materials, and
salaries. Guide the students to use spreadsheets to calculate the costs of a business.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You want to motivatethe school to invest in ICT resources. The reason must be based on the ICT Competency
Framework for Teachers (ICT-CFT).
Which argument should you use?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. to become the best equipped school in your region.
B. to improve local economic conditions.
C. to give the students in your school access to a range of resources and learning experiences.
D. to meet the expectations of the students and the parents.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
As an extension activity to the planned learning activity, you ask some of the students to contact external experts to
gather additional information about the historical events.
You want to ensure that the students use an appropriate means of communication when they contact the experts.
What should you advise the students to use?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. their personal mobile phone
B. an anonymous online forum
C. a generic email account of the school
D. their social network account
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You are a teacher at a secondary school. You work closely with the school administration.
A group of parents questions the large sum of money that the school invests in Information and Communication
Technology (ICT) resources.
You are requested to prepare a response on behalf of the school.
On which argument will you base your response?
A. Modern economies increasingly require a workforce that has good typing skills, so the school must try to incorporate
computers into all its activities.
B. Modern economies are increasingly based on knowledge and information, so students must learn the skills required to handle information.
C. The business sector in modern economies increasingly expects schools to produce students who are qualified in
financial knowledge.
D. Modern economies increasingly depend on the growth of the computer manufacturing industry, an economic sector
that schools must support.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You plan to lead a class discussion about the persuasive writing examples that the students bring in and to display the
examples to the entire class.
Which two ICT resources should you use to achieve this task? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. a flatbed scanner
B. a data projector
C. a monochrome laser printer
D. a digital camera
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
Your class just completed the video-conference with the farmer.
You want to do a quick assessment to identify how many students understood the key points of the video-conference.
What should you do?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Have the students use the student response system.
B. Have the students work in pairs to create a blog.
C. Have each student write an essay by using a word processing application.
D. Have each student design a presentation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
At the beginning of the second mathematics lesson, you want to engage students and remind them of the learning
objectives.
What should you use?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. a presentation that models the learning outcome
B. an audio recording that defines symmetry
C. a graphics application that displays symmetrical objects
D. a printed handout that contains an outline of the learning objectives
Correct Answer: C

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Microsoft exam certification information

Azure Security Engineer Associate – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/azure-security-engineer.aspx

Exam AZ-500: Microsoft Azure Security Technologies: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-az-500.aspx

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft Azure security engineers who implement security controls, maintain the security posture, manages identity and access, and protects data, applications, and networks. Candidates identify and remediate vulnerabilities by
using a variety of security tools implements threat protection, and responds to security incident escalations.
As a Microsoft Azure security engineer, candidates often serve as part of a larger team dedicated to cloud-based management
and security and may also secure hybrid environments as part of an end-to-end infrastructure.

Skills measured

  • Manage identity and access (20-25%)
  • Implement platform protection (35-40%)
  • Manage security operations (15-20%)
  • Secure data and applications (30-35%)

Microsoft Azure Security Engineer Associate az-500 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You have an Azure key vault.
You need to delegate administrative access to the key vault to meet the following requirements:
Provide a user named User1 with the ability to set advanced access policies for the key vault.
Provide a user named User2 with the ability to add and delete certificates in the key vault.
Use the principle of least privilege.
What should you use to assign access to each user? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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pass4itsure az-500 exam question q1-1

User1: RBAC
RBAC is used as the Key Vault access control mechanism for the management plane. It would allow a user with the
proper identity to:
set Key Vault access policies
create, read, update, and delete key vaults
set Key Vault tags
Note: Role-based access control (RBAC) is a system that provides fine-grained access management of Azure
resources. Using RBAC, you can segregate duties within your team and grant only the amount of access to users that
they need to
perform their jobs.
User2: A key vault access policy
A key vault access policy is the access control mechanism to get access to the key vault data plane. Key Vault access
policies grant permissions separately to keys, secrets, and certificates.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/key-vault/key-vault-secure-your-key-vault

 

QUESTION 2
You assign User8 the Owner role for RG4, RG5, and RG6.
In which resource groups can User8 create virtual networks and NSGs? To answer, select the appropriate options in the
answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Correct Answer:

pass4itsure az-500 exam question q2-1

Box 1: RG4 only
Virtual Networks are not allowed for Rg5 and Rg6.
Box 2: Rg4,Rg5, and Rg6
Scenario:
Contoso has two Azure subscriptions named Sub1 and Sub2.
Sub1 contains six resource groups named RG1, RG2, RG3, RG4, RG5, and RG6.
You assign User8 the Owner role for RG4, RG5, and RG6
User8 city Sidney, Role:None
Note: A network security group (NSG) contains a list of security rules that allow or deny network traffic to resources
connected to Azure Virtual Networks (VNet). NSGs can be associated to subnets, individual VMs (classic), or individual
network interfaces (NIC) attached to VMs (Resource Manager).
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/overview

 

QUESTION 3
You have an Azure subscription named Sub1 that is associated to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named
contoso.com.
You are assigned the Global administrator role for the tenant. You are responsible for managing Azure Security Center
settings.
You need to create a custom sensitivity label.
What should you do first?
A. Create a custom sensitive information type.
B. Elevate access for global administrators in Azure AD.
C. Upgrade the pricing tier of the Security Center to Standard.
D. Enable integration with Microsoft Cloud App Security.
Correct Answer: A
First, you need to create a new sensitive information type because you can\\’t directly modify the default rules.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/customize-a-built-in-sensitive-information-type

 

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain.
You have an Azure subscription named Sub1 that is associated to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named
contoso.com.
You plan to deploy Azure AD Connect and to integrate Active Directory and the Azure AD tenant.
You need to recommend an integration solution that meets the following requirements:
Ensures that password policies and user logon restrictions apply to user accounts that are synced to the tenant
Minimizes the number of servers required for the solution.
Which authentication method should you include in the recommendation?
A. federated identity with Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
B. password hash synchronization with seamless single sign-on (SSO)
C. pass-through authentication with seamless single sign-on (SSO)
Correct Answer: B
Password hash synchronization requires the least effort regarding deployment, maintenance, and infrastructure. This
level of effort typically applies to organizations that only need their users to sign in to Office 365, SaaS apps, and other
Azure AD-based resources. When turned on, password hash synchronization is part of the Azure AD Connect sync
process and runs every two minutes.
Incorrect Answers:
A: A federated authentication system relies on an external trusted system to authenticate users. Some companies want
to reuse their existing federated system investment with their Azure AD hybrid identity solution. The maintenance and
management of the federated system falls outside the control of Azure AD. It\\’s up to the organization by using the
federated system to make sure it\\’s deployed securely and can handle the authentication load.
C: For pass-through authentication, you need one or more (we recommend three) lightweight agents installed on
existing servers. These agents must have access to your on-premises Active Directory Domain Services, including your
on-premises AD domain controllers. They need outbound access to the Internet and access to your domain controllers.
For this reason, it\\’s not supported to deploy the agents in a perimeter network.
Pass-through Authentication requires unconstrained network access to domain controllers. All network traffic is
encrypted and limited to authentication requests.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-pta

 

QUESTION 5
Your company uses Azure DevOps.
You need to recommend a method to validate whether the code meets the company\\’s quality standards and code
review standards.
What should you recommend implementing in Azure DevOps?
A. branch folders
B. branch permissions
C. branch policies
D. branch locking
Correct Answer: C
Branch policies help teams protect their important branches of development. Policies enforce your team\\’s code quality
and change management standards.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/repos/git/branch-policies?view=azure-devopsandviewFallbackFrom=vsts

 

QUESTION 6
You have two Azure virtual machines in the East US2 region as shown in the following table.pass4itsure az-500 exam question q6

You deploy and configure an Azure Key vault.
You need to ensure that you can enable Azure Disk Encryption on VM1 and VM2.
What should you modify on each virtual machine? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure az-500 exam question q6-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure az-500 exam question q6-2

VM1: The Tier
The Tier needs to be upgraded to standard.
Disk Encryption for Windows and Linux IaaS VMs is in General Availability in all Azure public regions and Azure
Government regions for Standard VMs and VMs with Azure Premium Storage.
VM2: The type
Need to change the VMtype to any of A, D, DS, G, GS, F, and so on, series IaaS VMs.
Not the operating system version: Ubuntu 16.04 is supported.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/azure-security-disk-encryption-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/azure-security-disk-encryption-faq#bkmk_LinuxOSSupport

 

QUESTION 7
You have an Azure subscription named Sub1.
In Azure Security Center, you have a security playbook named Play1. Play1 is configured to send an email message to
a user named User1.
You need to modify Play1 to send email messages to a distribution group named Alerts.
What should you use to modify Play1?
A. Azure DevOps
B. Azure Application Insights
C. Azure Monitor
D. Azure Logic Apps Designer
Correct Answer: D
You can change an existing playbook in Security Center to add an action, or conditions. To do that you just need to click
on the name of the playbook that you want to change, in the Playbooks tab, and Logic App Designer opens up.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security-center/security-center-playbooks

 

QUESTION 8
You have the Azure Information Protection conditions shown in the following table.pass4itsure az-500 exam question q8

You have the Azure Information Protection labels shown in the following table.

pass4itsure az-500 exam question q8-1

You need to identify how Azure Information Protection will label files.
What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

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Correct Answer:

pass4itsure az-500 exam question q8-3

Box 1: Label 2 only How multiple conditions are evaluated when they apply to more than one label
1. The labels are ordered for evaluation, according to their position that you specify in the policy: The label positioned
first has the lowest position (least sensitive) and the label positioned last has the highest position (most sensitive).
2. The most sensitive label is applied.
3. The last sublabel is applied.
Box 2: No Label
Automatic classification applies to Word, Excel, and PowerPoint when documents are saved, and apply to Outlook when
emails are sent. Automatic classification does not apply to Microsoft Notepad.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/information-protection/configure-policy-classification

 

QUESTION 9
You have Azure virtual machines that have Update Management enabled. The virtual machines are configured as
shown in the following table.pass4itsure az-500 exam question q9

You schedule two update deployments named Update1 and Update2. Update1 updates VM3. Update2 updates VM6.
Which additional virtual machines can be updated by using Update1 and Update2? To answer, select the appropriate
options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure az-500 exam question q9-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure az-500 exam question q9-2

Update1: VM1 and VM2 only
VM3: Windows Server 2016 West US RG2
Update2: VM4 and VM5 only
VM6: CentOS 7.5 East US RG1
For Linux, the machine must have access to an update repository. The update repository can be private or public.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/automation/automation-update-management

 

QUESTION 10
You suspect that users are attempting to sign in to resources to which they have no access.
You need to create an Azure Log Analytics query to identify failed user sign-in attempts from the last three days. The
results must only show users who had more than five failed sign-in attempts.
How should you configure the query? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Correct Answer:

pass4itsure az-500 exam question q10-1

The following example identifies user accounts that failed to log in more than five times in the last day, and when they
last attempted to log in.
let timeframe = 1d; SecurityEvent | where TimeGenerated > ago(1d) | where AccountType == \\’User\\’ and EventID ==
4625 // 4625 – failed log in | summarize failed_login_attempts=count(), latest_failed_login=arg_max(TimeGenerated,
Account) by Account | where failed_login_attempts > 5 | project-away Account1
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/log-query/examples

 

QUESTION 11
Your company has an Azure subscription named Sub1 that is associated to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant
named contoso.com.
The company develops an application named App1. App1 is registered in Azure AD.
You need to ensure that App1 can access secrets in Azure Key Vault on behalf of the application users.
What should you configure?
A. an application permission without admin consent
B. a delegated permission without admin consent
C. a delegated permission that requires admin consent
D. an application permission that requires admin consent
Correct Answer: B
Delegated permissions – Your client application needs to access the web API as the signed-in user, but with access
limited by the selected permission. This type of permission can be granted by a user unless the permission requires
administrator consent.
Incorrect Answers:
A, D: Application permissions – Your client application needs to access the web API directly as itself (no user context).
This type of permission requires administrator consent and is also not available for public (desktop and mobile) client
applications.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/quickstart-configure-app-access-web-apis

 

QUESTION 12
You need to ensure that you can meet the security operations requirements. What should you do first?
A. Turn on Auto Provisioning in Security Center.
B. Integrate Security Center and Microsoft Cloud App Security.
C. Upgrade the pricing tier of Security Center to Standard.
D. Modify the Security Center workspace configuration.
Correct Answer: C
The Standard tier extends the capabilities of the Free tier to workloads running in private and other public clouds,
providing unified security management and threat protection across your hybrid cloud workloads. The Standard tier also
adds
advanced threat detection capabilities, which uses built-in behavioral analytics and machine learning to identify attacks
and zero-day exploits, access and application controls to reduce exposure to network attacks and malware, and more.
Scenario: Security Operations Requirements
Litware must be able to customize the operating system security configurations in Azure Security Center.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security-center/security-center-pricing

 

QUESTION 13
You are configuring an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster that will connect to an Azure Container Registry.
You need to use the auto-generated service principal to authenticate to the Azure Container Registry.
What should you create?
A. an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) group
B. an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) role assignment
C. an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) user
D. a secret in Azure Key Vault
Correct Answer: B
When you create an AKS cluster, Azure also creates a service principal to support cluster operability with other Azure
resources. You can use this auto-generated service principal for authentication with an ACR registry. To do so, you
need to create an Azure AD role assignment that grants the cluster\\’s service principal access to the container registry.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/container-registry/container-registry-auth-aks

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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam 70-703: Administering Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager and Cloud Services Integration: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-703.aspx Candidates for this exam are Enterprise Desktop Administrators who deploy, manage, and maintain PCs, devices,
and applications across medium, large, and enterprise organizations.

Candidates for this exam should have at least one or two years of experience managing and deploying PCs, devices, and applications by using System Center Configuration Manager and Microsoft Intune. Candidates should have a strong understanding of networking, Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), Windows operating systems, and mobile device platforms. Candidates should also understand public key infrastructure (PKI) security, Windows PowerShell, and Windows Server roles and services.

pass4itsure 70-703 exam Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Configure and Maintain a Configuration Manager Management Infrastructure (35-40%)
  • Manage Inventory by Using Configuration Manager (10-15%)
  • Manage Applications by Using Configuration Manager (15-20%)
  • Deploy and Maintain Operating Systems by using Configuration Manager (20-25%)
  • Extend the Management Scope of Configuration Manager (10-15%)

Latest Microsoft MCSE 70-703 Exam Practice Test Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
You upgrade a System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) site by using Updates and Servicing. You do
not upgrade the Configuration Manager client.
You need to pilot the upgrade of the Configuration Manager client on 10 percent of the computers.
What should you do?
A. Create a collection that contains the pilot clients. From the Hierarchy Settings Properties, configure the Client
Upgrade settings. Modify the setting for the production client.
B. Create a collection that contains the pilot clients. From the Hierarchy Settings Properties, configure the Client
Upgrade settings. Modify the setting for the pre-production client.
C. In the Site Maintenance settings, modify the Clear Install Flag maintenance task. From the Hierarchy Settings
Properties, configure the Client Upgrade settings. Modify the settings for the production client.
D. Create an Active Directory security group that contains the pilot clients. In the Site Maintenance settings, modify the
Update Application Available Targeting maintenance task.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/upgrade/test-client-upgrades

 

QUESTION 2
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The branch office has five users. Some users use laptops and
some use desktop computers.
All the servers for the company are located in the main office. The branch office connects to the main office by using a
VPN over a DSL connection to the main office.
You need to minimize the bandwidth used to deploy updates to branch office clients over the VPN connection. The
solution must minimize costs.
A. a pull-distribution point
B. a cloud management gateway
C. BranchCache
D. a cloud-based distribution point
E. a software update point
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/plan-design/hierarchy/design-a-hierarchy-of-sites


QUESTION 3
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
Your company has two sites named Site01 and Site02.
Site02 has 200 client computers that run Windows 10 and a server named Server01 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You add the Distribution point site system role to Server01.
You need to ensure that only the client computers in Site02 can download content from Server01.
What should you configure?
A. security scopes
B. security roles
C. boundary groups
D. boundary group relationships
Correct Answer: C
References: https://github.com/MicrosoftDocs/SCCMdocs/blob/master/sccm/core/servers/deploy/configure/boundary-groups.md

QUESTION 4
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You add the cloud management gateway connector point to the deployment.
Which site system role can be configured to receive the traffic from the cloud management gateway?
A. Service connection point
B. Software update point
C. Asset Intelligence synchronization point
D. Distribution point
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You deploy System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You need to implement the co-management of Windows 10 devices.
Which two components should you deploy before you can configure co-management? Each correct answer presents
part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. a cloud management gateway
B. the Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS) connector
C. a Microsoft Intune subscription
D. the Microsoft Store for Business
E. a Microsoft Office 365 subscription
Correct Answer: AC
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/co-management-prepare

QUESTION 6
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). You have the servers shown in the
following table.pass4itsure 70-703 exam question q6

You have one subnet that contains all the servers and several subnets that contain client computers. A firewall restricts
network traffic to the server subnet.
You install a new server named CM03 that runs Windows Server 2016. You install Windows Server Update Services
(WSUS) on CM03 by using the default options. You configure CM03 as the software update point.
You need to ensure that the client computers can access the software update point.
Which port should you open on the firewall?
A. 80
B. 443
C. 8080
D. 8530
Correct Answer: A
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh427328.aspx#BKMK_PortsSUP-WSUS

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You configure hybrid mobile device management (MDM).
You enroll several Apple iOS devices and deploy compliance policies.
One of the devices is marked as noncompliant.
You need to retrieve the logs from the device.
Solution: You open the Company Portal app, shake the device, and then tap Send Diagnostic Report when the
diagnostics alert appears.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) that has a management point and a
distribution point.
You have 1,000 Configuration Manager clients that run Windows 10.
You open the Windows 10 Servicing dashboard and discover that no data appears.
You need to ensure that servicing data is available on the dashboard.
What should you do?
A. Configure a software inventory.
B. Configure a hardware inventory.
C. Add a reporting services point and configure the report options.
D. Add a service connection point and a software update point.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/osd/deploy-use/manage-windows-as-a-service


QUESTION 9
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus is deployed to all client computers.
You need to ensure that all updates for Office 365 are deployed from Configuration Manager by using the least amount
of administrative effort.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create an automatic deployment rule (ADR)
B. Add a product to the software update point
C. Create a configuration baseline
D. Create an application
E. Update the Client Settings
F. Create a task sequence
Correct Answer: ABE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/sum/deploy-use/automatically-deploy-software-updates

QUESTION 10
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You plan to implement hybrid mobile device management (MDM).
Which cloud service should you provision?
A. Microsoft Operations Manager Suite (OMS)
B. Microsoft Store for Business
C. Microsoft Intune
D. Microsoft Azure
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/setup-hybrid-mdm

QUESTION 11
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) that contains a collection named
Restricted. Restricted contains only client computers that run Windows 10.
You need to ensure that only trusted executable files can run on the computers in the Restricted collection.
What should you do?
A. Deploy custom Client Device Settings.
B. Create a Windows Defender Application Control (WDAC) policy.
C. Modify the Default Client Settings.
D. Create a device compliancy policy.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/protect/deploy-use/use-device-guard-with-configuration-manager

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You plan to deploy System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) by using an initial pilot deployment.
The pilot deployment will contain five computers that run Windows 10.
You need to deploy the Configuration Manager client to the five computers only.
Solution: From the Configuration Manager console, you create a custom package. Deploy the package to the All
Unknown Computers collection.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You use Configuration Manager to deploy Windows 10.
You discover that newly deployed images of Windows 10 are missing several Windows 10 updates.
When you attempt to deploy the updates by using the Schedule Updates Wizard, the process fails, and you receive the
following error message: “Failed to apply one or more updates.”
Which log file should you view to get additional information about the failure?
A. ScanAgent.log
B. UpdatesHandler.log
C. OfflineServicingMgr.log
D. UpdatesDeployment.log
E. WUAHandler.log
Correct Answer: C
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh427342.aspx

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following replication methods is MOST appropriate when integrating data from multiple
remote offices?
A. Server to client
B. Server to server
C. Site to site
D. Disk to disk
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A user is unabletosave a newpresentation to the network U:\ drive. The error message indicates that there
is no available space. Other users in the department arenotexperiencinganyproblems saving to the U:\
drive.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A. The user does not have permissions to use the U:\ drive.
B. The user’s disk quota has been exceeded on the U:\drive.
C. The user’s local drive is out of space.
D. The user does not have the U:\ drive mapped.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Clients cannot connect to the network. A technician determines that port 68 is not open. Which of the
following protocols is being blocked?
A. POP3
B. DNS
C. LDAP
D. DHCP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A technician receives an error messagewhentrying to boot the server stating the operating system was not
found. Change management logs indicateanew hard drive backplane was installed in the server last night.
Which of the following should the technician do FIRST when troubleshooting the issue?
A. Check system board cables
B. Rebuild RAID array
C. Reinstall server OS
D. Remove newly installed hardware
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following describes an alternate site where only the infrastructure (building, power, cooling)
has been established?
A. Mirror site
B. Warm site
C. Hot site
D. Cold site
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A system administrator has a database server that crashes at random times. No changes have been made
to either the server’s software or hardware. Which of the following is the FIRST step the administrator
should take towards resolving this issue?
A. Establish an action plan.
B. Perform a root cause analysis.
C. Document the findings.
D. Identify the problem and scope.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is an example of the principle of least privilege and is the MOST secure when
granting access to a shared network drive used by the Accounting department?
A. Grant appropriate permissions to only users in the Accounting department for both the share and NTFS
B. Grant all users full control permissions for the share only
C. Grant the Accounting department full control for the share and appropriate NTFS permissions
D. Grant modify permissions to the Accounting department and deny NTFS permissions to all other users
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
The logs on a server in a datacenter indicate that the server unexpectedly shut down minutes after the
night cleaning crew started their shift. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the shut down?
A. A hard disk on the server failed.
B. A power surge occurred.
C. The CPU on the server overheated.
D. A memory module on the server failed.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A server administrator has been asked to make recommendations for purchase of a new database server
that will be processing all of the company accounts. One area of concern from prior experience is the
storage type used by the database server. The server is expected to have a large number of transactions
that occur, but will not require a large amount of capacity for the data storage. Given these requirements,
which of the following storage criteria are MOST important? (Select TWO).
A. Capacity
B. RPM
C. IOPS
D. Seek time and latency
E. Form factor
F. Bus width
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
A technician is troubleshooting a Linux server and wants to inspect the free disk space on the /dev/sda
partition of the system. Which of the following command line tools should the administrator run to view
available disk space on the partition?
A.ddB. du
C. ls
D. df
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A company has 700 servers installed in 50 server racks in the datacenter. The Chief Technology Officer
issued a memorandum to the IT department with a directive to reduce power and cooling consumptions by
50% in the datacenters. Which of the following should thesystemadministrators recommend?
A. Implement 208V 3-phase servers
B. Implement hot aisle / cold aisle
C. Virtualize the servers in the datacenter
D. Replace each server with a blade server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator purchases a new server, which contains only one Xeon processor. This server is also
known as a:
A. load balancing server.
B. multicore server.
C. redundant server.
D. single-core server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A user changed departments from sales to accounting. The user is unable to access the shared network
drive containing the accounting department’s files. Which of the following should a technician check?
A. File permissions
B. Folder redirections
C. Local group policy
D. Encryption type
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A server administrator is configuring access control on a file server for an organization. The Human
Resources manager is taking a leave of absence for three months, during which time an interim Human
Resources manager will take over the duties of the position. Which of the following types of access control
should be configured on the file server?
A. MAC
B. CBAC
C. DAC
D. RBAC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
An administrator is asked to change a configuration using a GUI on a Windows server, but does not have
access to a KVM. Which of the following is BEST to make the change?
A. SSHB. SCP
C. RDP
D. NTP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A blade server indicates it has a failed hard disk in Slot 0. This is the third instance of Slot 0 disk failure in
three months. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the failed hard disk in Slot 0?
A. Host bus adapter
B. Backplane
C. Network interface card
D. Central Processing Unit
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
An administrator is securing a secure web server by disabling ports. After completing this process, clients
cannot access the secure web server. The administrator should now go back and verify whether which of
the following ports is enabled?
A. 23
B. 389
C. 443
D. 445
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which of the following is the height of 1U of space in a server rack?
A. 1.5 inches (3.8 cm)
B. 1.75 inches (4.4 cm)
C. 2 inches (5.1 cm)
D. 3 inches (7.6 cm)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
When looking at an organization’s file server configuration, an IT manager determines that several outages
are tied to a lack of redundancy in the disk controller configuration. Which of the following features would
the IT manager look for in a new configuration to correct this?
A. Disk shadowing
B. RAID 0
C. Remote journaling
D. Electronic vaulting
E. Disk duplexing
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20
A line-of-business software patch notification is received. The notification indicates that version 5.0 of the
software has new features that the accounting department has been expecting.The update requires a new
version of the OS and new version of SQL on the server. Which of the following should the administrator
performFIRST?A. Schedule downtime to update the OS and SQL on the server.
B. Download and test the new version.
C. Develop a plan to build a test server.
D. Request feedback from the accounting department.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
A technician wants to implement a grandfather-father-son tape rotation policy. Which of the following
implements this backup strategy?
A. Assign a different set of tapes for daily, weekly, and monthly backups.
B. Use a different set of tapes for every two, four, and eight days.
C. Designate a different set of tapes for odd-day and even-day backups.
D. Use a queue to rotate tapes based on the age and usage of the tape.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
A system administrator is given a server with an existing OS installed and four empty SAS bays. The
system administrator is asked to set up a new data drive for testing with 100GB of data. For the best
possible performance, which of the following should the system administrator select for the data storage?
A. SCSI
B. SATA
C. Solid state drive
D. Flash drive
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is a benefit of utilizing a type 2 hypervisor to manage guests?
A. The administration of the guest OS is significantly less complex.
B. There is reduced resource overhead since there is no OS layer.
C. A type 2 hypervisor offers increased performance over a type 1 hypervisor.
D. There is increased hardware support since there is an OS layer.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which of the following protocols is used primarily for monitoring and managing network devices?
A. SNMP
B. SMTP
C. FTPS
D. NTP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
A user accidentally deleted a critical file. A technician tries to restore it from tape backup but receives an
error that thefile does not exist on the tape. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Verify that the correct tape is in the tape drive.
B. Re-index the tape library.
C. Schedule a differential backup to run now.D. Update the tape drive firmware.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which of the following is the MOST energy efficient way of powering equipment within a datacenter with a
large UPS battery bank?
A. 48V DC
B. 120V single-phase
C. 240VAC 3-phase
D. 480V 3-phase
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A server administrator is creating a design for a new datacenter. The servers should be configured for
maximum availability and also provide caching for user information requests. Which of the following
techniques should be used?
A. Active/Passive
B. Round robin
C. Heartbeat
D. Active/Active
E. Passive/Passive
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
A datacenter technician encounters a power receptacle labeled NEMA L5-30. Which of the following
powers is this socket rated for?
A. 115v 30 amp
B. 208v 30 amp
C. 220v 1 phase
D. 440v 3 phase
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
A technician has connected a previously formatted ext4 eSATA drive to a Linux server.
Given the following output:
Disk /dev/sdb: 1000.2 GB, 1000204886016 bytes
255 heads, 63 sectors/track, 382818 cylinders, total 1953525168 sectors
Units = sectors of 1 * 512 ?512 bytes
Sector size (logical/physical): 512 bytes / 512 bytes
I/O size (minimum/optimal): 512 bytes / 512 bytes
Disk identifier: 0x0009f31a
Device Boot Start End Blocks Id System
/dev/sdb1 * 20481 953525168 976761560 83 Linux
Which of the following commands should the technician use to make the partition available under /data/drive0?
A. fdformat -type Linux /dev/sdbl -d /data/drive0
B. ext2 0x0009f31a /data/drive0
C. net use /data/drive0 /dev/sdb
D. mount /dev/sdbl /data/drive0
E. fdisk -l /data/drive0
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
A server administrator is researching the purchase of SSD for a server. The administrator receives a report
from the datacenter technician detailing current storage requirements and future growth planning
estimates as follows:
ServerA: Current-15TB-Future-50% growth
ServerB: Current-20TB-Future-80% growth
Based on this report, which of the following represents the MINIMUM storage requirements needed?
A. ServerA-18TB, ServerB-24TB
B. ServerA-22TB, ServerB-22TB
C. ServerA-23TB, ServerB-36TB
D. ServerA-25TB, ServerB-40TB
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
When using multifactor authentication, which of the following represents “something you have”?
A. A password
B. A PIN
C. A fingerprint
D. An ID card
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
An administrator is validating disaster recovery mechanisms and wants to ensure backup data is usable
and accurate. Which of the following should the administrator do?
A. Backup verification and test restorability
B. Label media for all backups
C. Secure backup in safe location
D. Keep all backups onsite close to the server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
A server technician is investigating a potential data breach. It is believed that the breach occurred via
telnet access. Which of the following could validate this hypothesis?
A. Port scanner
B. Cipher tools
C. Checksum analyzer
D. TDR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
A technician is tasked with building a test server. Which of the following hard drive types will provide the
highest performance?
A. SCSI
B. SAS
C. SATA
D. iSCSI
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
A technician is configuring switcheswith SFPports on multiple floors in a building. A switch on the first floor
must be connected to a switch on the second floor for trunking VLAN traffic. Which of the following would
be the MOST appropriate cable type for the technician to use?
A. Multimode fiber
B. Coaxial cable
C. CAT5e rollover
D. CAT6 straight through
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
A technician needs to install additional memory in a server to help resolve performance issues. Which of
the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Perform an impact analysis.
B. Follow change management procedures.
C. Install the additional memory.
D. Update system firmware.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
A server technician is connecting a server to a switch in the server room. Both the server and the switch
are equipped with 10 Gigabit Ethernet adapters. Which of the following cable choices would produce the
BEST throughput?
A. CAT6 rollover cable
B. CAT5e straight-through cable
C. CAT6 straight-through cable
D. CAT5e crossover cable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
A server repeatedly crashes with a BSOD when running an application that uses a high amount of system
resources. Which of the following hardware components MOST likely needs to be checked by a
technician?
A. Memory
B. Hard drive
C. RAID controller
D. CPU
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which of the following methods should a technician perform to properly clear a hard drive before disposal?
A. Delete the FAT
B. Zero all block sectors
C. Delete the partition
D. Zero the NTFS journal
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 40
Which of the following troubleshooting methods would be performed after resolving an issue?
A. Verify system connectivity
B. Implement the solution
C. Document findings
D. Establish theory
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 41
A technician is tasked by an administrator to patch a virtual machine. The technician needs to ensure that
in case of failure, recovery of the virtual machine will be possible. Which of the following recovery
principles should the technician employ?
A. Incremental
B. Snapshot
C. Bare metal
D. Selective
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 42
An administrator would like to determine what port and services are running locally on a server. Which of
the following Windows command lines and shell tools should the administrator use? (Select THREE).
A. get-services
B. show ports
C. sc query
D. netstat
E. vmstat
F. show services
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 43
A technician would like to restrict when internal hardware components on the server are accessed. Which
of the following server hardening techniques should the technician implement?
A. Intrusion detection
B. BIOS password
C. Chassis lock
D. Disable WOL
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 44
A technician is called upon to add storage to a database server. The database administrator needs the
maximum performance for accessing many small files. Which of the following specifications should the
technician focus on when selecting the drive to add to the server?
A. Form factor
B. Capacity
C. Bus bandwidth
D. Seek time
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 45
A hardware failure affects a server in adatacenter. The server is critical to company operation, and the
hardware vendor is out of stock on the parts needed to repairthe server. A network technician suggests
replacing it with a server from the warm site.Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Outsource a hardware-certified courier to move the server to the datacenter.
B. Check the DRP and BCP and talk to the company stakeholders before making the decision.
C. Unrack the server from the warm site and move it to the datacenter.
D. Order the parts from the hardware vendor and notify affected users that the server will be down.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
A datacenter audit finds that a number ofpersonnel are not using accesscards when entering a secured
area with a coworker. Which of the following security methods could be implemented to help prevent this
behavior?
A. Mantrap
B. Keypad
C. Smart card
D. Security camera
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 47
A system administrator notices that there is a low level of available storage space on a file server. Which of
the following should be implemented to limit the amount of storage space users can utilize on the file
server?
A. Disk shadowing
B. Disk compression
C. Disk quota
D. Disk indexing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 48
A network administrator is tasked to block all outbound SSH connections on the default port from a
network subnet of 10.152.8.0/21 on aLinux based firewall. Which of the following rule sets would
accomplish this task?
A. iptables -i OUTPUT -d 10.152.8.0/21 -p TCP –dport 22 -j REJECT
B. iptables -i OUTPUT -d 10.152.8.0/21 -p TCP –dport 23 -j REJECT
C. iptables -i OUTPUT -d 10.152.8.0/21 -p TCP –dport 22 -j ACCEPT
D. iptables -i OUTPUT -d 10.152.8.0/21 -p TCP –dport 23 -j ACCEPT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 49
An older server has performance problems writing files to a RAID array. After checking for failed drives, no
problems are found. Which of the following should be checked NEXT?
A. The cooling system
B. The cache battery
C. The hard drive tray
D. The hard drive cables
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 50
Which of the following authentication protocols could be used to authenticate network administrators at a
datacenter to manage switches overaremote SSH connection? (SelectTWO).
A. LDAP
B. TACACS
C. RADIUS
D. SNMP
E. IPSec
F. MSCHAP
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following file systems is required to install Windows 7?
A. CDFS
B. NTFS
C. FAT
D. FAT32
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
After replacing a motherboard on a customer\’s laptop for a no sound issue, a technician realizes that there is intermittent wireless connectivity on the laptop. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST?
A. Reinstall the driver of the WiFi card.
B. Check to see if there is a wireless switch on the laptop and its current position.
C. Replace the wireless card because it is not fully compatible with the new motherboard.
D. Check if the WiFi antenna is connected properly to the wireless card.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
A user is reporting their web browser is not going to the site they are attempting to access. Which of the following would BEST resolve this?
A. Delete all Internet cookies.
B. Ensure the user is not utilizing a proxy server.
C. Remove all Internet shortcuts.
D. Clear all Internet cache and saved passwords.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
A technician is tasked with selecting components to build a computer that will be used for computer-aided drafting and computer aided modeling. Which of the following components are the BEST choices? (Select TW0).
A. Triple channel memory
B. M1D1 sound card
C. Socket 1156 motherboard
D. 0nboard graphics
E. Socket 1366 CPU
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 2220-901 dumps
Which of the following devices transmits data to all ports regardless of final destination?
A. Firewall
B. Router
C. Switch
D. Hub
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which of the following uses a single connector to deliver both video and audio?
A. DV1
B. Serial
C. VGA
D. HDMI
Correct Answer: D

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[2018-5-NEW] New Updated Cisco 352-001 Dumps Vce CCDE Exam With New Discount Youtube Training Q1-Q2

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Pass4itsure 352-001 Dumps Cisco Certified Design Expert Qualification Exam
Exam Number: 352-001
Associated Certification: CCDE
Duration: 120 minutes (90 – 110 questions)
Available Languages: English

Up to the immediate present 352-001 exam cram(1-24)

QUESTION 1
A multinational enterprise company has many branches in the Americas, Europe, and Asia Pacific with headquarters in London. Branch offices use Ethernet (bandwidth range from 1 Mb/s to 10 Mb/s) as access technology to connect to the headquarters and the regional hubs. The company is currently implementing VolP and QoS in all their locations, and they are worried about jitter between their branches and the headquarters. Which option reduces the effect of jitter?
A. buffering at endpoints
B. Call Admission Control
C. increase the bandwidth of the links
D. WRED
352-001 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which option described a difference between Ansible and Puppet?
A. Ansible is client-server based and puppet is not
B. Ansible requires an agent and puppet does not
C. Ansible is python and puppet is ruby based
D. Ansible automates repetetive tasks and puppet allow you to run plain ssh commands
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In a Cisco ACI environment, which option best describes “contracts”?
A. a set of interaction rules between endpoint groups
B. a Layer 3 forwarding domain
C. to determine endpoint group membership status
D. named groups of related endpoints
352-001 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are designing a network solution to connect a primary data center to a disaster recovery site. The applications hosted on the site will be mainly web and email servers that are provided through a virtualized environment. A third data center facility may also be added in the next sixth months. for this Which connectivity type is appropriate design?
A. point-to-point GRE tunnels
B. L2TPv3
C. VPWS
D. VPLS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which workflow-based software solution provides automation and orchestration processes for compute, network, and storage with support for these features? single-pane infrastructure management, support for multiple hypervisors, storage provisioning with EMC and NetApp, abstraction of hardware and software elements into more than 1000 programmable workflows, self provisioning of virtual machines using catalogs.
A. OpenStack
B. Ansible
C. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud
D. Cisco UCS Director
352-001 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A company wants to prioritize voice traffic at their network edge and ensure that it has reserved some minimum bandwidth and treated with priority in the core. QoS is not currently implemented in the core, but MPLS with RSVP as the signaling protocol is already enabled. Which three actions do you recommend to optimize the voice traffic in the core with minimal changes? (Choose 3)
A. Configure PHB queueing policies on every core node based on the DSCP value.
B. Create GRE tunnels through the core and configure PBR to forward the voice traffic into those tunnels.
C. Create RSVP tunnels through the core, reserving a minimum bandwidth for voice traffic.
D. Perform class-based tunnel selection to forward voice packets through MPLS tunnels in the core based on DSCP value.
E. Enable LDP throughout the core and configure PHB queueing policies based on the MPLS EXP field.
F. Mark the voice traffic at the network edge with a specific DSCP value.
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 7
Which two functions are performed at the core layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model? (Choose 2)
A. QoS classification and marking boundary
B. fast transport
C. reliability
D. fault isolation
E. load balancing
352-001 vce Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
You are assisting in convergence optimization for an MPLS network. Which option should you recommend to prevent microloops in the core backbone of the service provider?
A. RSVP-TE
B. RLFA
C. LFA
D. prefix suppression
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
As the new network designer for a manufacturing company, you are designing this resilient Ethernet ring for the plant Ethernet network that is connected to the core, which does not use STP. Both edge ports are on the same switch in a ring segment. There is connectivity between the edge ports throughout the segment, so you can create a redundant connection between any two switches in the ring. Which three options are characteristics of this design? (Choose 3)
A. If a link fails, then the alternate ports quickly unblock. When the failed link comes back up, a logically blocked port per VLAN is selected with minimal disruption to the network.
B. If all ports in the segment are operational, then two ports are in the blocked state for each VLAN.
C. If VLAN load balancing is configured, then one port in the segment controls the blocked state of VLANs.
D. If all ports in the segment are operational, then one port is in the blocked state for each VLAN.
E. If one or more ports in a segment are not operational, thereby causing a link failure, then all ports forward traffic on all VLANs to ensure connectivity.
F. If a link fails, then the alternate ports quickly unblock. When the failed link comes back up, a physically blocked port per VLAN is selected with minimal disruption to the network.
352-001 exam Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 10
Which are two general SDN characteristics? (Choose 2)
A. OVSDB is an application database management protocol.
B. Northbound interfaces are open interfaces used between the control plane and the data plane.
C. OpenFlow is considered one of the first Northbound APIs used by SDN controllers.
D. Southbound interface are interfaces used between the control plane and the data plane.
E. The separation of the control plane from the data plane.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
Which two benefits can be obtained by protecting the control plane of a network device? (Choose two.)
A. Maintains remote management access to the router
B. Preserves the confidentiality of traffic encrypted by IPsec
C. Prevents the delivery of packets from spoof sources
D. Maintains routing protocol adjacencies with local neighbors
352-001 dumps Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
The service provider that you work for wants to offer IPv6 internet service to its customers without upgrading all of its access equipment to support IPv6. Which transition technology do you recommend?
A. CGN
B. NAT64
C. dual-stack CPE
D. 6RD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
How should you compensate for jitter on an IP network so it carries real-time VolP traffic with acceptable voice transmission quality?
A. Set up VAD to replace gaps on speech with comfort noise.
B. Set up a playout buffer to play back the voice stream.
C. Deploy RSVP for dynamic VolP packet classification.
D. Change CODEC from G.729 to G.711.
352-001 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which three of the following security controls would you take into consideration when implementing IoT capabilities?
A. Layered security approach
B. Place security above functionality
C. Define lifecycle controls for IoT devices
D. Privacy impact Assessment
E. Change passwords every 90 days
F. Implement intrusion detection systems on IoT Devices
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 15
You must design this network for IP Fast Reroute by enabling the OSPF Loop-Free Alternates feature (not
Remote Loop-Free Alternates). Which two options are concerns about the proposed solution? (Choose 2)
A. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates is not supported on ring topologies.
B. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates on ring topologies are prone to routing loops.
C. Fast Reroute requires MPLS TE.
D. The solution is prone to microloops in case of congestion
E. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates is transport dependent.
352-001 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 16
You are asked to design an RSVP-TE LSP protection solution for a large service provider network. Which traffic protection mechanism is highly scalable and ensures that multiple LSPs always terminate at the same merge point?
A. detour LSPs
B. 1:1 protection
C. 1:N protection
D. shared-explicit reservation style
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
In Layer 2 access campus design, which mechanism should be enabled on access ports to protect the campus network from undesired access switches and looped ports?
A. root guard
B. EtherChannel guard
C. BPDU guard
D. loop guard
352-001 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which option describes a design benefit of root guard?
A. It makes the port go immediately into the forwarding state after being connected.
B. It does not generate a spanning-tree topology change upon connecting and disconnecting a station on a port.
C. It allows small, unmanaged switches to be plugged into ports of access switches without the risk of switch loops.
D. It prevents switch loops by detecting one-way communications on the physical port.
E. It prevents switch loops caused by unidirectional point-to-point link condition on Rapid PVST+ and MST.
F. It prevents switched traffic from traversing suboptimal paths on the network.
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 19
A network is designed to use OSPF to reach eBGP peers. Which condition should be avoided so that the eBGP peers do not flap continuously in case of link failure?
A. Advertise via a non-backbone OSPF area IP addresses used on eBGP peer statements.
B. Advertise via eBGP IP addresses used on eBGP peer statements.
C. Disable BGP synchronization.
D. Use an ACL to block BGP in one direction.
352-001 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which two IEEE standards are commonly used at the data link layer for an access network, in an loT environment? (Choose 2)
A. 802.11
B. 802.16
C. 802.15.4
D. 1901.2 NB-PLC
E. 802.22
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 21
Which two steps can be taken by the sinkhole technique? (Choose two.)
A. Delay an attack from reaching its target
B. Redirect an attack away from its target
C. Monitor attack noise, scans, and other activity
D. Reverse the direction of an attack
352-001 pdf Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 22
What is a correct design consideration of IPv6 MLD snooping?
A. MLD snooping requires IGMP snooping to be implemented.
B. MLD snooping conserves CPU by sharing IPv4 and IPv6 multicast topology.
C. MLD snooping is used to filter all MLD queries.
D. MLD snooping conserves bandwidth on switches.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
The Middle East-based cloud service provider, CSP, is planning to launch five data centers in Egypt, United Arab Emirates, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, and Turkey. CSP is looking for VLAN extension and DCIs between these five data centers to allow for software replication, where original and backup VMs must be on the same subnet. Which tunneling technology must they use?
A. VPWS
B. L2TPv3
C. IPsec VPN
D. VPLS
352-001 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
A service provider wants to use a controller to automate the provisioning of service function chaining. Which two overlay technologies can be used with EVPN MP-BGP to create the service chains in the data center? (Choose 2)
A. MPLS L2VPN
B. 802.1Q
C. MPLSoGRE
D. VXLAN
E. Provider Backbone Bridging EVPN
Correct Answer: DE

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[2018-5-NEW] Recenty Updated Cisco 300-370 Dumps CCNP Wireless Exam Youtube Study Guides Download Are The Best Materials Q1-Q30

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Preparing your 300-370 dumps? 300-370, Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks is a proctored exam offered by pass4itsure Cisco. This exam is specially linked with pass4itsure (WITSHOOT) Cisco certified solutionse expert. This exam is available in English. Candidates connected with IT field can apply for pass4itsure 300-370 dumps pdf Cisco certification exams, and this is a CCNP Wireless certification technology. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed.

Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
Exam Number: 300-370 WITSHOOT
Associated Certifications: CCNP Wireless
Duration: 90 Minutes (55 – 65 questions)
Available Languages: English

Up to the immediate present 300-370 exam cram(1-30)

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
300-370 dumps
A client reports being unable to log into the wireless network According to the output, which network information should be verified?
A. the Failed Attempts log on the authentication server
B. that the AP has IP connectivity to the authentication server
C. that the user has an account on the authentication server
D. that the authentication and accounting configuration are correct
300-370 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
An engineer must open a support case with Cisco TAC. Which two commands verify the model and serial number of a controller?(Choose two)
A. show sysinfo
B. show udi
C. show inventory
D. show boot
E. show tech-support
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
While reviewing Clean Air data in Cisco Prime Infrastructure, an engineer notices that a wideband jammer is not sending its Interferer Security Trap correctly. The engineer determines that the default seventy level has been changed. Which value does the engineer select to reset the seventy level to its factory setting?
A. informational
B. major
C. minor
D. warning
E. critical
300-370 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
An engineer is using various techniques to discover and isolate rogues on the network. For which technique must the engineer consider legal ramifications?
A. rogue AP containment
B. RF detection
C. switch port tracing
D. wire detection
E. Cisco Prime Infrastructure location services
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco WLC debug command allows you to determine if the certificate process is failing in the CAPWAP messages?
A. debug pm pki enable
B. debug cert events enable
C. debug capwap events enable
D. debug capwap packet enable
E. debug capwap errors enable
300-370 pdf Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
Scenario
The Big Engineering IT team has been working in the lab to do some testing of some new features the existing network won’t support. They are AP Croups, AP Failover, and Local Web Auth. They have been having problems with all three features. In this test environment the controllers only support the Composite and Structural Engineering and Aerodynamic Engineering groups. All SSIDs should omit the department name. Refer to the exhibit. This is a diagram of the floor plan for the Big Engineering office and the distribution of the departments. The tables below show how the controllers have been configured. Note, not all menu items, text boxes, or radio buttons are active.
300-370 dumps
300-370 dumps
When you review the configuration of the test network controller what needs to be changed to resolve the problems? (Choose four.)
A. Change the High Availability Primary Controller Management Interface IP address.
B. Remove the current WLANs and replace them with WLANs that have the same SSID names as on the AE-2504A controller.
C. Add the Local Net User names and passwords
D. Change the Layer 2 security to none and Layer 3 Security to Web Policy for the CSE-Contractors WLAN
E. Remove me current WLAN from the CSE-WLAN AP Group and add all three of the WLANs configured in the CSE- 2504A
F. Add the CSE APs to the CSE-WLANs AP-Group.
Correct Answer: BCDF

QUESTION 7
Which two statements about the WLAN are true? (Choose two)
300-370 dumps
Refer to the exhibit.
300-370 dumps
A. The client has a 5 GHz connection.
B. The client has authenticated.
C. The client is 802.11n capable.
D. The Cisco device is a 3600 series AP.
E. 802 11b data rates are disabled in this WLAN
300-370 vce Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
The AP is unable to join the controller. What is the cause of this error? Refer to the exhibit.
300-370 dumps
A. The controller code version is lower than the code of the AP attempting to join.
B. AP code is not the same as the controller and must download firmware.
C. AP model % not compatible with the controller code version.
D. The AP is riot conjured in the controller auth-list of acceptable APs.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Employees upgraded company issued OS devices. Which are configured to authenticate to the network using WPA2- Eniefpnse 802 lx with LEAP As a result, the devices are no longer able to authenticate. Which action must the engineer do 10 resolve the issue? Refer to the exhibit.
300-370 dumps
A. Redeploy the existing configuration profile.
B. Change LEAP certificate on the ACS server.
C. Reset the network settings on the devices.
D. Rejoin the enterprise network manually.
E. Deploy a new configuration profile with LEAP enabled
300-370 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
An engineer is troubleshooting non-802 11 interference and observes this output. Which type of interference signaturescanbeidentified? Refer to the exhibit.
300-370 dumps
A. one frequency hopping Bluetooth
B. two healthy CCK and one malformed OFDM
C. three broadband jammers
D. two strong microwave ovens and one moderate
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A new wireless deployment with high AP density is experiencing high latency and connectivity issues on the 24 GHz band, despite an initial site survey done by a certified partner. Which option is the most impactful change a wireless consultant recommends? Refer to the exhibit.
300-370 dumps
A. Increase the fragmentation threshold to allow larger packets over the air.
B. Reduce the beacon period because it reduces the RF interference.
C. Disable lower data rate, such as 1 Mbps and 2 Mbps.
D. Disable the short preamble.
E. Disable 80211g support to reduce interference.
300-370 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A wireless user is experiencing connectivity issues with their Mac OS laptop. If the Mac is exhibiting the behavior of a “sticky client” how can the tech verity which AP the user is currently connected to?
A. Hold shift while clicking the wireless icon.
B. Hold option while clicking the wireless icon.
C. Hold control while clicking the wireless icon.
D. Hold command while clicking the wireless icon.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An engineer has configured 802 1x for the network and all but one of the APs are passing authentication. Which configurationiscausing the failure?
A. The AP has override global credentials checked.
B. The switch AAA credentials do not match what is configured on ISE.
C. The controller 802 1x supplicant credentials do not match what is configured on ISE
D. EAP-FAST is configured on ISE for this AP.
300-370 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An engineer is troubleshooting AP join issues on a wireless infrastructure. While gathering debugs, the engineer notices that one of the commands may generate an excessive an excessive amount of data on the console. Which command causes this to occur?
A. debug capwap detail enable
B. debug capwap errors enable
C. debug capwap info enable
D. debug capwap events enable
E. debug capwap packet enable
F. debug capwap payload enable
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A network engineer is troubleshooting why EAP authentication with a client is failing. Which two commands should be used to resolve the issue? (Choose two)
A. debug dot1x notifications enable
B. debug dot1x events enable
C. debug arp
D. debug aaa detail enable
E. debug aaa events detail enable
300-370 vce Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 16
Which channel width is the maximum that can be obtained by bonding two 802.11 ac subchannels according to US regulations?
A. 160 MHz
B. 120 MHz
C. 84 MHz
D. 240 MHz
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which statement about the join process of the access point is true? Refer to the exhibit.
300-370 dumps
A. The time on the controller is outside of the certificates validity time interval, so the join phase failed.
B. The AP successfully joined the controller.
C. The AP moved from this controller to its primary controller.
D. The AP failed to join because the MAC address of the AP was not correct on the controller.
E. The controller rejected all discovery requests from the AP because they were not received on the management interface subnet.
300-370 exam Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 18
You have successfully configured HA and SSO using two Cisco 5508 Wireless LAN Controllers. You are able to access the Active Primary WLC but are unable to access the Secondary Standby WLC. Which two methods will allow you to access the standby unit? (Choose two.)
A. Via SSH to the Redundancy Management Interface.
B. Via Service Port Interface.
C. Via SSH to the Management Interface.
D. Via console connection.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
Which ports require unrestricted port access for CleanAir RF spectrum analysis between the AP and Cisco Spectrum Expert?
A. UDP 5246 and 5247
B. UDP 37540 and 37550
C. TCP 16113 and 16114
D. TCP 37540 and 37550
E. TCP 5246 and 5247
F. UDP 16113and 16114
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
A recently acquired Cisco Aironet 1550 series AP is unable to join the WLC. This message is observed on the AP console:
AAA Authentication Failure for UserName:CC93.1981.0035 User Type: WLAN USER Which action must be taken for the AP to associate with the controller?
A. Add MAC address CC93.1981.0035 to the Security AAA AP policy Authorization List.
B. Authenticate the AP to the WLC from the console using an admin account on the WLC.
C. Add MAC address CC93.1981.035 to the Security AAA MAC Filtering tab.
D. Import the self-signed certificate of the AP to the Security:Certificate:LSC tab.
E. Import the self-signed certificate of the AP to the Security:Certificate:SSC tab.
300-370 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
An engineer has run the debug dhcp packet enable command on the wireless LAN controller CLI. Which field contacts the IP address offered to the client?
A. siaddr
B. ciaddr
C. chaddr
D. yiaddr
E. giaddr
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Some users are experiencing inconsistent performance on their mobile devices as they move throughout the building when browsing the Internet. Which feature provides a more consistent user experiences?
A. low RSSI check
B. 802.11r
C. RX-SOP
D. optimized roaming
300-370 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A network engineer has identified clients who are experiencing delays white roaming. The network is configured with WPA2-Enterpnse. AES encryption, 802 1X authentication, and Cisco Centralized Key Management. Which change resolves the roaming delays?
A. Utilize a supplicant that supports Cisco Centralized Key Management.”
B. Enable AES and TKIP encryption
C. Disable client session timeout
D. Install wireless device drivers from Cisco
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
An engineer is deploying a wireless infrastructure and must use Layer 2 discovery for access point association. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. Configure the Access Points and WLC management interface on the same VLAN.
B. Configure a DNS A RECORD to point to the controller.
C. Configure option 43 on The APs DHCP scope.
D. Configure the AP using a serial connection to indicate its controller.
300-370 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
A wireless engineer is unable to join lightweight access points to the Cisco Wireless Controller. The access points receive ip addresses from a DHCP pool configured on the core switch.
Which action must be taken to resolve the issue?
A. Upgrade the Wireless Controller to a newer IOS release.
B. Configure option 43 on the DHCP pool.
C. Configure option 82 on the Wireless controller.
D. Change the management ip address on the Wireless Controller.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
A mobile station in a factory contains an AP configured as a work group bridge that authenticates to a root AP using EAP-FAST. To be able to use the mobile station in further parts of the factory, another root AP is installed and also configured for EAP-FAST When the mobile station is attempting to roam to the other AP, it loses connection yet can still authenticate to the first one. What is the cause for the failed authentication on RAP2?
Refer to the exhibit.
300-370 dumps
A. RAP1 is using a different authentication protocol than RAP2.
B. RAP2 has a different SSID than RAP1.
C. RAP1 is using a different encryption than RAP2.
D. The authentication use name and password is different.
300-370 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
In a cisco OfficeExtend environment, which encryption type n und between the access point and the mass LAW controller?
A. DTLS
B. TIS
C. STIS
D. OpenSSL
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
A Cisco WLC v7.0 is not seeing an AP join. Which starting prefix debug command can help determine a combination of discovery/join and DHCP process status?
A. debug capwap events – from Cisco WLC
B. debug capwap events – from the AP
C. debug ip udp – from Cisco WLC
D. debug ip udp – from the AP
300-370 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Layer 3 WLAN controller mutual authentication join process events on the left into the order in which they occur on the right Not all options are used.
Select and Place:
300-370 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-370 dumps

QUESTION 30
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the IP address range on the left onto the specific purpose for multicast groups on the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:
300-370 dumps
300-370 pdf Correct Answer:
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[2018-4-NEW] Best New Cisco 200-125 Dumps Real CCNA Exam Video Questions Answers (Question 1 – Question 50)

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Cisco Certified Network Associate Exam
Exam Number: 200-125 CCNA
Associated Certifications: CCNA Routing and Switching
Duration: 90 Minutes (60 – 70 questions)
Available Languages: English, Japanese

Up to the immediate present 200-125 exam cram(1-50)

QUESTION 1
Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given cisco switch? (choose two)
A. show interfaces interface
B. show interfaces trunk
C. show interfaces switch port
D. show ip interface brief
E. show interfaces vlan
200-125 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
If you are configuring syslog messages specifying `logging trap warning’, which log messages will the router send?
A. 0-4
B. 0-5
C. 0-6
D. 0-2
E. 0-1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which command can you enter to configure an IPV6 floating static route?
A. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 201
B. Router(config)# ipv6 route::/0 serail0/1
C. Router(config)# ipv6 route static resolve default
D. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 1
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is true about Ethernet? (Choose Two.)
A. 802.2 Protocol
B. 802.3 Protocol
C. 10BaseT half duplex
D. CSMA/CD Stops transmitting when congestion occurs
E. CSMA/CA Stops transmitting when congestion occurs
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
How to configure RIPv2? (Choose Two.)
A. Enable RIP
B. Connect RIP to WAN interface
C. Enable no auto-summary
D. Enable authentication
200-125 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
What is the status of port-channel if LACP is misconfigured?
A. Forwarding
B. Enabled
C. Disabled
D. Err disabled
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
What is true about DTP? (Choose Three.)
A. Layer 2 protocol
B. Layer 3 protocol
C. Proprietary protocol
D. enabled by default
E. disabled by default
200-125 vce Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 8
How to create a trunk port and allow VLAN 20? (Choose Three.)
A. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
D. switchport trunk native vlan 20
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
What 8-bit field exists in IP packet for QoS?
A. Tos Field
B. DSCP
C. IP Precedence
D. Cos
200-125 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What feature uses a random time to re-sent a frame?
A. CSMA/CA
B. CSMA/CD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the router send?
A. 0-4
B. 0-5
C. 0-6
D. 0-2
E. 0-1
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
A. an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network
B. an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host
C. a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site
D. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP
E. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator
200-125 pdf Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 14
Which feature facilitate the tagging of a specific VLAN?
A. Routing
B. Hair pinning
C. Encapsulation
D. Switching
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What does split horizon prevent?
A. routing loops, link state
B. routing loops, distance vector
C. switching loops, STP
D. switching loops, VTP
200-125 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process ?
A. interface
B. virtual IP address
C. priority
D. router ID
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is needed to be enable back the role of active in HSRP?
A. preempt
B. priority
200-125 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which of the following privilege level is the most secured?
A. Level 0
B. Level 1
C. Level 15
D. Level 16
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?
A. unicast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. broadcast
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which range represents the standard access list?
A. 99
B. 150
C. 299
D. 2000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
What to do when the router password was forgotten?
A. use default password cisco to reset
B. access router physically
C. use ssl/vpn
D. Type confreg 0x2142 at the rommon 1
200-125 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which of the following encrypts the traffic on a leased line?
A. telnet
B. ssh
C. vtp
D. vpn
E. dmvpn
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
How do you configure a hostname?
A. Router(config)#hostname R1
B. https://www.CertBus.com/200-125.html
C. https://www.CertBus.com/200-125.html
D. https://www.CertBus.com/200-125.html
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which technology you will choose to connect multiple sites with secure connections?
A. Point-to-point
B. DMVPN
C. vpn
200-125 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
What routing protocol use first-hand information?
A. link-state
B. distance-vector
C. path-vector
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which command you enter on a switch to display the ip address associated with connected devices?
A. Show cdp neighbors detail
B. Show cdp neighbor
C. Show cdp interface
D. Show cdp traffic
200-125 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing?(choose two)
A. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing tables.
B. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
C. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
D. Route summarization iscompued automatically by the router.
E. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links
F. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables,using automatic updates.
G. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 28
Which of the following are the valid numbers of standard ACL (choosse two)
A. 50
B. 1550
C. 150
D. 1250
E. 2050
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
What does split-horizon do?
A. Prevent routing loop in distance vector protocol
B. Prevent switching loop in distance vector protocol
C. Prevent switching loop in link-state protocol
D. Prevent routing loop in link-state protocol
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which statement about vlan operation on cisco catalyst switches is true?
A. when a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk,the vlan id can be determined from the source MAC address table.
B. unkown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same vlan
C. ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that vlans can span across the ports
D. broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different vlan
200-125 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Refer to exhibit. Which command can you enter to verify link speed and duplex setting on the interface?
200-125 dumps
A. router# show protocols
B. router#show startup-config
C. router#show line
D. router#show interface gig0/1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that you troubleshooting?
A. When you lack the proper to resolve the issue.
B. When a more urgent issue that requires your intervention is detected
C. When you have gathered all information about an issue
D. When you have been unable to resolve the issue after 30 min
200-125 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which two authentic methods are compatible with MLPPP on a serial Interface?(choose two)
A. PEAP
B. CHAP
C. TACACS+
D. PAP
E. LEAP
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 34
Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, three of the following addresses are valid host addresses. Which are these addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.9.0
B. 172.16.8.0
C. 172.16.31.0
D. 172.16.20.0
200-125 exam Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 35
Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?
A. The designated port
B. The backup port
C. The alternate port
D. The root port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 36
Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?
A. The interface number
B. The port priority
C. The VLAN priority
D. The hello time
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?
A. The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN
B. The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN
C. Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064
D. A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running configuration only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
How Eigrp for ipv6 configuration done? (Choose two)
A. uses process number
B. neighbor configured directly
C. configured driectly on interface
D. configured globally interface
E. have shutdown feature
200-125 pdf Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 39
interface fa0/0
ip address x.x.x.33 255.255.255.224
router bgp XXX
neighbor x.x.x.x remote as x.x.x.x
You need to advertise the network of Int fa0/0.
A. x.x.x.32 mask 255.255.255.224
B. x.x.x.32 255.255.255.224
C. x.x.x.32 mask 0.0.0.31
D. x.x.x.33 mask 255.255.255.224
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which two statements about LLDP are true?(choose two)
A. It uses mandatory TLVs to discover the neighboring devices
B. It functions at Layer 2 and Layer 3
C. It is a Cisco-proprietary technology
D. It is implemented in accordance with the 802.11a specification
E. It enables systems to learn about one another over the data-link layer
200-125 vce Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 41
Which cloud service is typically used to provide DNS and DHCP services to an enterprise?
A. IaaS
B. DaaS
C. SaaS
D. PaaS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 42
Which two protocol can detect native vlan mismatch errors? (Choose two.)
A. CDP
B. VTP
C. DTP
D. STP
E. PAGP
200-125 exam Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 43
Router R1 has a static route that is configured to destination network.A directly connected interface is configured with an IP address in the same destination network.Which statement about R1 is true?
A. R1 refuses to advertise the dynamic route to other neighbors
B. R1 prefers the static route
C. R1 prefers the directly connected interface
D. R1 sends a withdrawal notification to the neighboring router
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 44
Drag and Drop
Select and Place:
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200-125 dumps Correct Answer:
200-125 dumps

QUESTION 45
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Correct Answer:
200-125 dumps

QUESTION 46
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200-125 dumps
200-125 pdf Correct Answer:
200-125 dumps

QUESTION 47
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 48
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200-125 dumps

QUESTION 49
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 50
Drag and Drop
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200-125 dumps Correct Answer:
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[2018-4-NEW] Best Cisco 200-105 Dumps ICND2 Exam Actual Test Youtube Will Be More Popular (Question 21 – Question 33)

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Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2
Exam Number: 200-105 ICND2
Associated Certifications: CCNA Routing & Switching
Duration: 90 Minutes (55-65 questions)
Available Languages: English, Japanese

Up to the immediate present 200-105 exam cram(21-33)

QUESTION 21
The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch: interface fastethernet 0/4
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111
switchport port-security maximum 2
swithcport port-security
What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?
A. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4 simultaneously
B. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4 simultaneously
C. Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept
D. The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station
E. The port is effectively shutdown
200-105 exam Correct Answer: BD
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
What are the two default metrics used by EIGRP for route selection? (Choose two.)
A. Bandwidth
B. Delay
C. Reliability
D. Load
E. MTU
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation/Reference:
EIGRP adds together weighted values of different network link characteristics in order to calculate a metric for
evaluating path selection.

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3, what is the TTL value for that ping?
A. 253
B. 252
C. 255
D. 254
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
From the CCNA ICND2 Exam book: andquot;Routers decrement the TTL by 1 every time they forward a packet; if a router decrements the TTL to 0, it throws away the packet. This prevents packets from rota

QUESTION 24
What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an application that is causing slow network performance?
A. SNMP
B. Netflow
C. WCCP
D. IP SLA
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Netflow can be used to diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs and bandwidth utilization quickly with command line interface or reporting tools. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/prod

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 26
While you were troubleshooting a connection issue, a ping from one VLAN to another VLAN on the same switch failed. Which command verifies that IP routing is enabled on interfaces and the local VLANs are up?
A. show ip interface brief
B. show ip nat statistics
C. show ip statistics
D. show ip route
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Initiate a ping from an end device in one VLAN to the interface VLAN on another VLAN in order to verify that the switch routes between VLANs. In this example, ping from VLAN 2 (10.1.2.1) to Interface

QUESTION 27
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
200-105 vce Correct Answer: BG
Explanation/Reference:
When reading (or being lectured about) all the glorious details of dynamic routing protocols, it\’s hard not to come away with the impression that dynamic routing is always better than static routing

QUESTION 28
Scenario
Refer to the topology. Your company has connected the routers R1. R2. and R3 with serial links. R2 and R3 are connected to the switches SW1 and SW2, respectively. SW1 and SW2 are also connected to the routers R4 and R5. The EIGRP routing protocol is configured. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers.
Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
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100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
Router R6 does not form an EIGRP neighbor relationship correctly with router R1. What is the cause for this misconfiguration?
A. The K values mismatch.
B. The AS does not match.
C. The network command is missing.
D. The passive-interface command is enabled.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
C. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
200-105 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 30
Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?
A. converged
B. redundant
C. provisioned
D. spanned
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches have transitioned to
either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, root bridge is elec

Question No : 31 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
200-105 dumps Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
From the output, we see that all ports are in Designated role (forwarding state) -> A and E are correct. The command “show spanning-tree vlan 30 only shows us information about VLAN 30. We don’t know how many VLAN exists in this switch -> B is not correct. The bridge priority of this switch is 24606 which is lower than the default value bridge priority 32768 -> C is correct. All three interfaces on this switch have the connection type “p2p”, which means Point-to point environment – not a shared media -> D is not correct. The only thing we can specify is this switch is the root bridge for VLAN 3o but we can not
guarantee it is also the root bridge for other VLANs -> F is not correct.

Question No : 32 – (Topic 1)
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Answer: C
Explanation:
Spanning Tree from PVST+ to Rapid-PVST Migration Configuration Example
Reference 1:
Reference 2:
a.shtml
PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states (discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning, forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.
100-105 dumps

Background Information
802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) has a drawback of slow convergence. Cisco Catalyst switches support three types of STPs, which are PVST+, rapid-PVST+ and MST. PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D standard and includes Cisco proprietary extensions such
as BackboneFast, UplinkFast, and PortFast. Rapid-PVST+ is based on IEEE 802.1w standard and has a faster convergence than 802.1D. RSTP (IEEE 802.1w) natively includes most of the Cisco proprietary enhancements to the 802.1D Spanning Tree, such
as BackboneFast and UplinkFast. Rapid-PVST+ has these unique features: Uses Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) version 2 which is backward compatible with the 802.1D STP, which uses BPDU version 0. All the switches generate BPDUs and send out on all the ports every 2 seconds, whereas in 802.1D STP only the root bridge sends the configuration BPDUs.
Port Roles—Root port, designated port, alternate port and backup port.
Port States—Discarding, Learning, and Forwarding.
Port Types—Edge Port (PortFast), Point-to-Point and Shared port.
Rapid-PVST uses RSTP to provide faster convergence. When any RSTP port receives legacy 802.1D BPDU, it falls back to legacy STP and the inherent fast convergence benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy bridges.

Question No : 33 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
200-105 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
In this question, we only care about the Access Layer switches (Switch3 & 4). Switch 3 has a lower bridge ID than Switch 4 (because the MAC of Switch3 is smaller than that of Switch4) so both ports of Switch3 will be in forwarding state. The alternative port will surely belong to Switch4. Switch4 will need to block one of its ports to avoid a bridging loop between the two switches. But how does Switch4 select its blocked port? Well, the answer is based on the BPDUs it receives from Switch3. A BPDU is superior than another if it has:
1. A lower Root Bridge ID2. A lower path cost to the Root3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A lower Sending Port ID These four parameters are examined in order. In this specific case, all the BPDUs sent by Switch3 have the same Root Bridge ID, the same path cost to the Root and the same Sending Bridge ID. The only parameter left to select the best one is the Sending Port ID (Port ID = port priority + port index). In this case the port priorities are equal because they use the default value, so Switch4 will compare port index values, which are unique to each port on the switch, and because Fa0/12 is inferior to Fa0/1, Switch4 will select the port connected with Fa0/1 (of Switch3) as its root port and block the other port -> Port fa0/11 of
Switch4 will be blocked (discarding role)

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Preparing your 100-105 dumps? 100-105, Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0) is a proctored exam offered by pass4itsure Cisco. This exam is specially linked with (ICND1) Cisco certified solutions Expert. This exam is available in English, Japanese. Candidates connected with IT field can apply for pass4itsure 100-105 dumps pdf Cisco certification exams, and this is a CCENT, CCNA Routing & Switching, CCDA, CCNA Security, CCNA Wireless certification technology. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed.

Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1
Exam Number: 100-105 ICND1
Associated Certifications: CCENT, CCNA Routing & Switching, CCDA, CCNA Security, CCNA Wireless
Duration: 90 Minutes (45-55 questions)
Available Languages: English, Japanese

Up to the immediate present 100-105 exam cram(1-13)

Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The message will be broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices. What addresses will populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2?
100-105 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
100-105 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
The Source and Destination IP address is not going to change. Host 1 IP address will stay as being the source IP and the Host 2 IP address will stay the destination IP address. Those two are not going to change. For the MAC address it is going to change each time it goes from one hope to another. (Except switches… they don’t change anything) Frame leaving HOST 1 is going to have a source MAC of Host 1 and a destination MAC of Router 1. Router 1 is going to strip that info off and then will make the source MAC address of Router1’s exiting interface, and making Router2’s interface as the destination MAC address.
Then the same will happen… Router2 is going to change the source/destination info to the

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP
100-105 dumps Answer: E
Explanation:
The RARP protocol is used to translate hardware interface addresses to protocol addresses. The RARP message format is very similar to the ARP format. When the booting computer sends the broadcast ARP request, it places its own hardware address in both the sending and receiving fields in the encapsulated ARP data packet. The RARP server will fill in the correct sending and receiving IP addresses in its response to the message. This way the booting computer will know its IP address when it gets the message from the RARP server

Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Answer: C
Explanation:
TCP is an example of a connection-oriented protocol. It requires a logical connection to be established between the two processes before data is exchanged. The connection must be maintained during the entire time that communication is taking place, then released afterwards. The process is much like a telephone call, where a virtual circuit is established-
-the caller must know the person’s telephone number and the phone must be answered– before the message can be delivered.
TCP/IP is also a connection-oriented transport with orderly release. With orderly release, any data remaining in the buffer is sent before the connection is terminated. The release is accomplished in a three-way handshake between client and server processes. The connection-oriented protocols in the OSI protocol suite, on the other hand, do not support orderly release. Applications perform any handshake necessary for ensuring orderly release. Examples of services that use connection-oriented transport services are telnet, rlogin, and ftp.

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?
A. broadcast domains
B. repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts
Answer: C
Explanation:
Modern wired networks use a network switch to eliminate collisions. By connecting each device directly to a port on the switch, either each port on a switch becomes its own collision domain (in the case of half duplex links) or the possibility of collisions is eliminated entirely in the case of full duplex links.

Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.0.50
C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
F. 255.255.255.255
100-105 pdf Answer: E
Explanation:
For the initial communication, Host A will send a broadcast ARP (all F’s) to determine the correct address to use to reach the destination. ARP sends an Ethernet frame called an ARP request to every host on the shared link-layer legmen. The Ethernet header includes the source host MAC address and a destination address of all Fs representing a broadcast frame. The ARP request contains the sender’s MAC and IP address and the target (destination) IP address. The target’s MAC address is
set to all 0s. ARP Request
Reference:

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?
A. 1 – Ethernet Crossover cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – Fiber Optic cable
4 – Rollover cable
B. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
C. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable
2 – Ethernet crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Null-modem cable
D. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet Crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
E. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet Crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Ethernet Straight-through cable
Answer: B
Explanation:
When connecting a PC to a switch, a standard Ethernet straight through cable should be used. This same cable should also be used for switch to router connections. Generally speaking, crossover cables are only needed when connecting two like devices (PC-PC, switch-switch, router-router, etc). Routers connect to frame relay and other WAN networks using serial cables. Rollover cables are special cables used for connecting to the console ports of Cisco devices.

Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
100-105 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
Switches keep the learned MAC addresses in a table, so that when a frame comes in with a destination MAC address that the switch has already learned, it will forward it to that port only. If a frame comes in with a destination MAC that is not already in the MAC address table, then the frame will be flooded to all ports except for the one that it came in on. In this case, Switch A already knows that 00b0.d0da.cb56 resides on port fa0/6, so it will forward the from out that port.

Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)
A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.
B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.
D. CDP is a network layer protocol.
E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices containing useful info for troubleshooting and documenting the network.

Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
Answer: C
Explanation:
Only a router can terminate a leased line attachment access circuit, and only a router can connect two different IP networks. Here, we will need a router with two interfaces, one serial connection for the line attachment and one Ethernet interface to connect to the switch on the LAN.

Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
100-105 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
HTTP uses TCP port 80, and a TCP port 80 connection must be established for HTTP communication to occur.

Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd.1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222
D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035
Answer: E
Explanation:
For packets destined to a host on another IP network, the destination MAC address will be the LAN interface of the router. Since the FTP server lies on a different network, the host will know to send the frame to its default gateway, which is Toronto.

Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
100-105 exam Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
Switches use a separate collision domain for each port, so device A must be a switch. Hubs, however, place all ports in the same collision domain so device B is a hub. Switches reside in layer 2 while hubs are layer 1 devices.

Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Internet Protocol Suite, TCP/IP, is a suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. The TCP/ IP model was created after the OSI 7 layer model for two major reasons. First, the foundation of the Internet was built using the TCP/IP suite and through the spread of the World Wide Web and Internet, TCP/IP has been preferred. Second, a project researched by the Department of Defense (DOD) consisted of creating the TCP/IP protocols. The DOD’s goal was to bring international standards which could not be met by the OSI model. Since the DOD was the largest software consumer and they preferred the TCP/IP suite, most vendors used this model rather than the OSI. Below is a side by side comparison of the TCP/IP and OSI models.

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