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Latest VMware VCP-DW 2020 2V0-61.20 Dumps Practice Test Questions Q1-Q13
QUESTION 1 During an enrollment attempt, a user enters their email address in the initial field in the Intelligent Hub. The user receives an error stating, “Something went wrong with discovery”. Which configuration setting can be enabled to allow end-users to enter an email address instead of a Server URL? A. Allow only known users B. Pre-Register devices C. Autodiscovery Enrollment D. Enrollment Token Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 An administrator has received complaints from end-users not receiving consistent email notifications on their iOS devices. Email is configured on the end-users devices using only the VMware Boxer email client. Boxer is only configured from Workspace ONE to use Office 365. What can the administrator do to resolve the inconsistent email notifications? A. Configure VMware Email Notification Service v2 to provide consistent notification experience. B. Configure VPN tunnel with a Boxer configuration, so that it is able to connect to the internal network. C. Configure Secure Email Gateway v2 to provide a better notification experience. D. Configure Mobile SSO for VMware Boxer to prevent users from entering credentials. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 IT management has announced all traffic from the DMZ will be blocked unless it passes through a newly configured proxy, effective immediately. Administrators notice that SEGv2 is unable to contact the Workspace ONE API server. Which configuration will the administrators need to amend and apply to the SEGv2 servers? A. inbound proxy B. SSL offloading C. KCD integration D. outbound proxy Correct Answer: D Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-UEM/2001/WS1_SEGV2_Doc.pdf (21)
QUESTION 6 An administrator wants to create a new Workspace ONE Access Policy that is specific only to a newly created IP subnet. Which three Workspace ONE Access Policy settings would the administrator set? (Choose three.) A. network range B. authentication method C. subnet range D. device type E. attribute type F. assignment method Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 8 Which three functions are supported by Workspace ONE Intelligence? (Choose three.) A. Conduct augmented analysis with artificial intelligence. B. Perform integration with other service platforms. C. Create a custom report. D. Set event driven automated API actions. E. Automate suggested actions based on VMware recommended practices. Correct Answer: BCE Reference: https://kb.vmtestdrive.com/hc/en-us/articles/360002445574-Workspace-ONE-Intelligence-Overview
QUESTION 9 An administrator has been tasked with automating an action for the internal IT team via available APIs. Where can the administrator find a repository of all API commands with syntax and example? A. Navigate to /api/help B. Navigate to the Intelligent HUB and find the latest API guide C. Navigate to VMware Docs and find the latest API guide D. Navigate to /apiv2/commands Correct Answer: B Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONEUEM/services/WS1_System_Settings_On_Prem.pdf
QUESTION 11 Which three options are supported by Workspace ONE Access? (Choose three.) A. unified application catalog B. conditional access C. Per-App VPN D. network segmentation E. encryption F. Mobile SSO Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 12 Which auxiliary component, with a default configuration, has the ability to self-update after an upgrade? A. Workspace ONE Access Connector B. Unified Access Gateway C. Secure Email Gateway on UAG D. AirWatch Cloud Connector Correct Answer: C Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-UEM/1903/WS1_Upgrade.pdf
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Microsoft Dynamic 365 Manufacturing Functional Consultant Associate MB-300 Practice Test Questions
QUESTION 1 A company implements Dynamics 365 Finance. You are the primary approver for purchase requisitions that are greater than $500,000. You are going on vacation for two weeks. You need to assign another user as the approver only for purchase requisitions greater than $500,000. What should you do? A. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of Module B. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of All C. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of Workflow Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2 You need to configure integration with Excel. How should you complete the configuration? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOT: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3 You want to enhance usability m the Dynamics 365 finance deployment for an organization You need to set up filters to help people find records that are used regularly. Which filter expressions should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4 A company implements Dynamics 365 Finance. You have a requirement that the component data for address structure in the system be available in Portuguese (Brazil). You need to provide address and contact information purpose with translation. What should you do? A. Under Organization administration, on the Global addresses tab, enter the appropriate translation value in the translations form B. In User options, set the language preference to Portuguese pt-BR and enter addresses for customers and vendors C. Upload files to Dynamics 365 Translation Services (DTS) for conversion D. Apply return from Dynamics 365 Translation Services (DTS) to the system by submitting a support ticket Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 You need to connect the Excel instance to the Relecloud production instance. What should you do? A. Set the server URL to Microsoft.Dynamics.Platform.Integration.Office.UrlViewerApplet. B. Set the server URL to https://relecloud-prod.operations.dynamics.com. C. Set the App Correlation ID to https://relecloud-prod.operations.dynamics.com. D. Set the App Correlation ID to the App Id in the Dynamics 365 Office App Parameters. Correct Answer: B Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/office-integration/use-excel-addin
QUESTION 6 DRAG DROP A company needs test scripts that can be leveraged by the Regression Suite Automated Testing (RSAT) tool. Several users are creating their test cases and sending the files to you to upload. You need to create these scripts and link them to the RSAT tool. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 7 HOTSPOT You set up a new instance of Dynamics 365 Finance. Your company sells widgets in cases of 12 units and pallets of 144 cases. You need to establish the units of measure. Which parameter is used to detail the units of measure? To answer, select the detail to match the parameter in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 8 HOTSPOT You are a Dynamics 365 Finance system administrator. Account managers need to use workspaces to monitor key pieces of data for customers and to navigate to forms for further actions. You need to include workspace elements to achieve these needs. Which design element should you use? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 9 DRAG DROP You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance system administrator. The finance department is experiencing electronic reporting submittal issues. You must use all available sources to troubleshoot those issues. You need to identity potential hotfixes. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 10 A company implements Dynamics 365 Finance and sets up and configures the system to support its reporting requirements using Microsoft Power BI. A user creates a chart in her Power BI instance to display customer order patterns for the top 10 customers daily. You need to configure the Power BI integration to pin the chart to the user\\’s workspace in Dynamics 365 Finance. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. In the Dynamics 365 Finance client, authorize sign-in to Power BI. B. In Azure Active Directory, grant the customer services manager administrative permissions to the company\\’s Azure Active Directory account to run the report. C. In Microsoft Azure Active Directory, add the PowerBI service to the app registration and grant the necessary delegated permissions. D. In the Entity store, configure the Application ID and Application key for PowerBI. E. In the Dynamics 365 Finance System administration setup screen in PowerBI.com, configure the application ID and application key. Correct Answer: ACE Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/analytics/configure-power-biintegration
QUESTION 11 HOTSPOT A company implements Dynamics 365 Finance. It must set up the system to be ready for entering inventory items. You need to select which unit of conversion fits the scenario. Which conversion types should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 12 HOTSPOT A company implements Dynamics 365 Finance. It sets up and configures the system to support reporting requirements using Microsoft Power BI. The customer service manager wants to create reports in Power BI for analyzing customer order patterns, order fulfillment metrics, customer satisfaction KPIs, and customer service representative goal metrics. These reports compare aggregated information across multiple demographic regions and business lines for current trends against historic information. The manager would like to use the reports to make individual team performance more visible to the managerial and executive teams. Since reports will be used by those teams as well as mobile users, the manager would like the report response to reflect the latest data without requiring the user to wait. You need to determine which tool or functionality best fits the scenario. Which feature or functionality should you use? To answer, select the appropriate feature or functionality in the dialog box in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 13 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are a Dynamics 365 Finance system administrator. You have a test environment that is used by several people at any given time. You create a new data entity in your development and migrate the code to the test environment. In the test environment, you are unable to find the data entity in the list. You need to locate the data entity. Solution: In the Data management framework parameter screen, refresh the Entity list. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
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WS-CERTIFIED-ALEXA-SKILL-BUILDER-SPECIALTY PDF DUMPS
AWS-CERTIFIED-ALEXA-SKILL-BUILDER-SPECIALTY Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 An Alexa Skill Builder submitted a child-directed skill for certification that lists the nearest skateboard parks. The Builder ensured that The skill does not link to an external account The skill stored the child\\’s preference by userId The skill has a valid privacy policy link in the skill Distribution page Given this information, why will the skill fail certification? A. The Builder did not upload a privacy policy document B. Child-directed skills cannot use location information C. The child\\’s userId cannot be used because of Personally Identifiable Information (PII) restrictions. D. The skill should not be child-directed as it can be used by children over 13 years old. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 An Alexa Builder is working on a skill for music streaming. When a user says, “Alexa, stop” the skill needs to know where the user was in the song, so that when returning to the skill in a new session, the song can pick up where it left off. Which section of the following JSON contains the data indicating where the song left off?
A. session.attributes B. Context.AudioPlayer C. session.user D. context.System.device.supportedInterfaces.AudioPlayer Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 An Alexa Skill Builder has built a new custom skill backed by an AWS Lambda function. The Lambda function executes successfully from the Lambda console, however, the Lambda function cannot be successfully invoked in the developer console or from an Amazon Alexa enabled device. No error messages show in the function\\’s Amazon CloudWatch Logs. The Builder confirmed the endpoint has the correct ARN. What is likely causing this issue and how can it be corrected? A. The Lambda application code has a bug that is causing it to crash. Modify the code to fix the bug, then redeploy the Lambda function. B. The ASK SDK was not deployed with the Lambda function. Add the ASK SDK, then redeploy the Lambda function. C. The ASK trigger for the Lambda function has been restricted to the wrong skill ID. Re-create the trigger with the correct skill ID. D. The Lambda role does not have the correct AWS IAM permission. Update the IAM role associated with the Lambda function. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Before beginning the development of a skill, an Alexa Skill Builder wants to hear how a statement will be pronounced by Amazon Alexa in another locale. How should the Builder test the pronunciation of the statement? A. Use the Alexa Simulator tab in the developer console to interact with the skill using the selected locale. B. Create a developer account for the specific locale, and use a device to interact with the skill. C. Use Voice and Tone tab in the developer console to play the statement using the selected locale. D. Use the Manual JSON tab in the developer console to create a sample JSON response Correct Answer: C Reference: https://developer.amazon.com/en-US/docs/alexa/devconsole/test-your-skill.html
QUESTION 5 An Amazon Alexa trip planner skill has several intents and slots. One of the intents is PlanMyTripIntent and some of the slots are fromCity, toxicity, departDate, and returnDate. The following is a sample dialog: User: Ask plan my trip to start a new trip leaving from Seattle. Alexa: You said you are leaving from Seattle, right? User: Yes Alexa: I\\’ve saved your trip. Do you want to create another trip? User: Yes What will be invoked upon the user\\’s final “Yes”? A. PlanMyTripIntent B. AMAZON.CancelIntent C. AMAZON.YesIntent D. LaunchRequest Correct Answer: D Reference: https://developer.amazon.com/en-US/docs/alexa/custom-skills/request-types-reference.html
AWS-CERTIFIED-CLOUD-PRACTITIONER Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 Which service is best for storing common database query results, which helps to alleviate database access load? A. Amazon Machine Learning B. Amazon SQS C. Amazon ElastiCache D. Amazon EC2 Instance Store Correct Answer: C Amazon ElastiCache for Redis is a great choice for implementing a highly available, distributed, and secure in-memory cache to decrease access latency, increase throughput, and ease the load off your relational or NoSQL databases and applications. ElastiCache can serve frequently requested items at sub-millisecond response times, and enables you to easily scale for higher loads without growing the costlier backend databases. Database query results caching, persistent session caching, and full-page caching are all popular examples of caching with ElastiCache for Redis. Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/products/databases/real-time-apps-elasticache-for-redis/
QUESTION 2 What tasks should a customer perform when that customer suspects an AWS account has been compromised? (Choose two.) A. Rotate passwords and access keys. B. Remove MFA tokens. C. Move resources to a different AWS Region. D. Delete AWS CloudTrail Resources. E. Contact AWS Support. Correct Answer: AE Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/knowledge-center/potential-account-compromise/
QUESTION 3 Which service stores objects, provides real-time access to those objects, and offers versioning and lifecycle capabilities? A. Amazon Glacier B. AWS Storage Gateway C. Amazon S3D. Amazon EBS Correct Answer: C Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/s3/faqs/
QUESTION 4 To use the AWS CLI, users are required to generate: A. a password policy. B. an access/secret key. C. a managed policy. D. an API key. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 What AWS service would be used to centrally manage AWS access across multiple accounts? A. AWS Service Catalog B. AWS Config C. AWS Trusted Advisor D. AWS Organizations Correct Answer: D To improve control over your AWS environment, you can use AWS Organizations to create groups of accounts, and then attach policies to a group to ensure the correct policies are applied across the accounts without requiring custom scripts and manual processes. Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/org
AWS-CERTIFIED-DEVELOPER-ASSOCIATE Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 A Developer is creating a mobile application with a limited budget. The solution requires a scalable service that will enable customers to sign up and authenticate into the mobile application while using the organization\\’s current SAML 2.0 identity provider. Which AWS service should be used to meet these requirements? A. AWS Lambda B. Amazon Cognito C. AWS IAM D. Amazon EC2 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 According to best practice, how should access keys be managed in AWS? (Choose two.) A. Use the same access key in all applications for consistency. B. Delete all access keys for the account root user. C. Leave unused access keys in the account for tracking purposes. D. Embed and encrypt access keys in code for continuous deployment. E. Use Amazon IAM roles instead of access keys where possible. Correct Answer: BE Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/general/latest/gr/aws-access-keys-best-practices.html#iam-user-access-keys
QUESTION 3 The upload of a 15 GB object to Amazon S3 fails. The error message reads: “Your proposed upload exceeds the maximum allowed object size.” What technique will allow the Developer to upload this object? A. Upload the object using the multi-part upload API. B. Upload the object over an AWS Direct Connect connection. C. Contact AWS Support to increase the object size limit. D. Upload the object to another AWS region. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://acloud.guru/forums/aws-certified-solutions-architectassociate/discussion/-KACOEWK92oCmeCwuj4t/s3-question-on-multi-part-upload
QUESTION 4 An existing serverless application processes uploaded image files. The process currently uses a single Lambda function that takes an image file, performs the processing, and stores the file in Amazon S3. Users of the application now require thumbnail generation of the images. Users want to avoid any impact to the time it takes to perform the image uploads. How can thumbnail generation be added to the application, meeting user requirements while minimizing changes to existing code? A. Change the existing Lambda function handling the uploads to create thumbnails at the time of upload. Have the function store both the image and thumbnail in Amazon S3. B. Create a second Lambda function that handles thumbnail generation and storage. Change the existing Lambda function to invoke it asynchronously. C. Create an S3 event notification with a Lambda function destination. Create a new Lambda function to generate and store thumbnails. D. Create an S3 event notification to an SQS Queue. Create a scheduled Lambda function that processes the queue, and generates and stores thumbnails. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/lambda/latest/dg/with-s3-example.html
QUESTION 5 A company needs to ingest terabytes of data each hour from thousands of sources that are delivered almost continually throughout the day. The volume of messages generated varies over the course of the day. Messages must be delivered in real time for fraud detection and live operational dashboards. Which approach will meet these requirements? A. Send the messages to an Amazon SQS queue, then process the messages by using a fleet of Amazon EC2 instances B. Use the Amazon S3 API to write messages to an S3 bucket, then process the messages by using Amazon Redshift C. Use AWS Data Pipeline to automate the movement and transformation of data D. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams with Kinesis Client Library to ingest and deliver messages Correct Answer: D Reference: https://noise.getoto.net/tag/amazon-kinesis-analytics/
AWS-CERTIFIED-SECURITY-SPECIALTY Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 There is a requirement for a company to transfer large amounts of data between AWS and an on-premise location. There is an additional requirement for low latency and high consistency traffic to AWS. Given these requirements how would you design a hybrid architecture? Choose the correct answer from the options below Please select: A. Provision a Direct Connect connection to an AWS region using a Direct Connect partner. B. Create a VPN tunnel for private connectivity, which increases network consistency and reduces latency. C. Create an iPSec tunnel for private connectivity, which increases network consistency and reduces latency. D. Create a VPC peering connection between AWS and the Customer gateway. Correct Answer: A AWS Direct Connect makes it easy to establish a dedicated network connection from your premises to AWS. Using AWS Direct Connect you can establish private connectivity between AWS and your datacenter, office, or colocation environment which in many cases can reduce your network costs, increase bandwidth throughput and provide a more consistent network experience than Internet-based connections. Options B and C are invalid because these options will not reduce network latency Options D is invalid because this is only used to connect 2 VPC\\’s For more information on AWS direct connect, just browse to the below URL: https://aws.amazon.com/directconnect The correct answer is: Provision a Direct Connect connection to an AWS region using a Direct Connect partner. omit your Feedback/Queries to our Experts
QUESTION 2 A company stores data on an Amazon EBS volume attached to an Amazon EC2 instance. The data is asynchronously replicated to an Amazon S3 bucket. Both the EBS volume and the S3 bucket are encrypted with the same AWS KMS Customer Master Key (CMK). A former employee scheduled a deletion of that CMK before leaving the company. The company\\’s Developer Operations department learns about this only after the CMK has been deleted. Which steps must be taken to address this situation? A. Copy the data directly from the EBS encrypted volume before the volume is detached from the EC2 instance. B. Recover the data from the EBS encrypted volume using an earlier version of the KMS backing key. C. Make a request to AWS Support to recover the S3 encrypted data. D. Make a request to AWS Support to restore the deleted CMK, and use it to recover the data. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A Security Engineer for a large company is managing a data processing application used by 1,500 subsidiary companies. The parent and subsidiary companies all use AWS. The application uses TCP port 443 and runs on Amazon EC2 behind a Network Load Balancer (NLB). For compliance reasons, the application should only be accessible to the subsidiaries and should not be available on the public internet. To meet the compliance requirements for restricted access, the Engineer has received the public and private CIDR block ranges for each subsidiary What solution should the Engineer use to implement the appropriate access restrictions for the application? A. Create a NACL to allow access on TCP port 443 from the 1;500 subsidiary CIDR block ranges. Associate the NACL to both the NLB and EC2 instances B. Create an AWS security group to allow access on TCP port 443 from the 1,500 subsidiary CIDR block ranges. Associate the security group to the NLB. Create a second security group for EC2 instances with access on TCP port 443 from the NLB security group. C. Create an AWS PrivateLink endpoint service in the parent company account attached to the NLB. Create an AWS security group for the instances to allow access on TCP port 443 from the AWS PrivateLink endpoint. Use AWS PrivateLink interface endpoints in the 1,500 subsidiary AWS accounts to connect to the data processing application. D. Create an AWS security group to allow access on TCP port 443 from the 1,500 subsidiary CIDR block ranges. Associate the security group with EC2 instances. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which of the following is the correct sequence of how KMS manages the keys when used along with the Redshift cluster service Please select: A. The master keys encrypts the cluster key. The cluster key encrypts the database key. The database key encrypts the data encryption keys. B. The master keys encrypts the database key. The database key encrypts the data encryption keys. C. The master keys encrypts the data encryption keys. The data encryption keys encrypts the database key D. The master keys encrypts the cluster key, database key and data encryption keys Correct Answer: A This is mentioned in the AWS Documentation Amazon Redshift uses a four-tier, key-based architecture for encryption. The architecture consists of data encryption keys, a database key, a cluster key, and a master key. Data encryption keys encrypt data blocks in the cluster. Each data block is assigned a randomly-generated AES-256 key. These keys are encrypted by using the database key for the cluster. The database key encrypts data encryption keys in the cluster. The database key is a randomly-generated AES-256 key. It is stored on disk in a separate network from the Amazon Redshift cluster and passed to the cluster across a secure channel. The cluster key encrypts the database key for the Amazon Redshift cluster. Option B is incorrect because the master key encrypts the cluster key and not the database key Option C is incorrect because the master key encrypts the cluster key and not the data encryption keys Option D is incorrect because the master key encrypts the cluster key only For more information on how keys are used in Redshift, please visit the following URL: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/kms/latest/developereuide/services-redshift.html The correct answer is: The master keys encrypts the cluster key. The cluster key encrypts the database key. The database key encrypts the data encryption keys. Submit your Feedback/Queries to our Experts
QUESTION 5 Which option for the use of the AWS Key Management Service (KMS) supports key management best practices that focus on minimizing the potential scope of data exposed by a possible future key compromise? A. Use KMS automatic key rotation to replace the master key, and use this new master key for future encryption operations without re-encrypting previously encrypted data. B. Generate a new Customer Master Key (CMK), re-encrypt all existing data with the new CMK, and use it for all future encryption operations. C. Change the CMK alias every 90 days, and update key-calling applications with the new key alias. D. Change the CMK permissions to ensure that individuals who can provision keys are not the same individuals who can use the keys. Correct Answer: A
AWS-DevOps- ENGINEER-PROFESSIONAL Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 You are creating a new API for video game scores. Reads are 100 times more common than writes, and the top 1% of scores are read 100 times more frequently than the rest of the scores. What\\’s the best design for this system, using DynamoDB? A. DynamoDB table with 100x higher read than write throughput, with CloudFront caching. B. DynamoDB table with roughly equal read and write throughput, with CloudFront caching. C. DynamoDB table with 100x higher read than write throughput, with ElastiCache caching. D. DynamoDB table with roughly equal read and write throughput, with ElastiCache caching. Correct Answer: D Because the 100x read ratio is mostly driven by a small subset, with caching, only a roughly equal number of reads to writes will miss the cache, since the supermajority will hit the top 1% scores. Knowing we need to set the values roughly equal when using caching, we select AWS ElastiCache, because CloudFront cannot directly cache DynamoDB queries, and ElastiCache is an excellent in-memory cache for database queries, rather than a distributed proxy cache for content delivery. … One solution would be to cache these reads at the application layer. Caching is a technique that is used in many high-throughput applications, offloading read activity on hot items to the cache rather than to the database. Your application can cache the most popular items in memory, or use a product such as ElastiCache to do the same. Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/amazondynamodb/latest/developerguide/GuidelinesForTables.html#Guideli nesForTables.CachePopularItem
QUESTION 2 What is the scope of an EC2 EIP? A. Placement Group B. Availability Zone C. Region D. VPC Correct Answer: C An Elastic IP address is tied to a region and can be associated only with an instance in the same region. Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/resources.html
QUESTION 3 A company uses a complex system that consists of networking, IAM policies, and multiple three-tier applications. Requirements are still being defined for a new system, so the number of AWS components present in the final design is not known. The DevOps Engineer needs to begin defining AWS resources using AWS CloudFormation to automate and version-control the new infrastructure. What is the best practice for using CloudFormation to create new environments? A. Manually construct the networking layer using Amazon VPC and then define all other resources using CloudFormation. B. Create a single template to encompass all resources that are required for the system so there is only one template to version-control. C. Create multiple separate templates for each logical part of the system, use cross-stack references in CloudFormation, and maintain several templates in version control. D. Create many separate templates for each logical part of the system, and provide the outputs from one to the next using an Amazon EC2 instance running SDK for granular control. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 You need to perform ad-hoc analysis on log data, including searching quickly for specific error codes and reference numbers. Which should you evaluate first? A. AWS Elasticsearch Service B. AWS RedShift C. AWS EMR D. AWS DynamoDB Correct Answer: A Amazon Elasticsearch Service (Amazon ES) is a managed service that makes it easy to deploy, operate, and scale Elasticsearch clusters in the AWS cloud. Elasticsearch is a popular open-source search and analytics engine for use cases such as log analytics, real-time application monitoring, and click stream analytics. Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/elasticsearch-service/latest/developerguide/what-is-amazon-elasticsearch-s ervice.html
QUESTION 5 A DevOps Engineer needs to deploy a scalable three-tier Node.js application in AWS. The application must have zero downtime during deployments and be able to roll back to previous versions. Other applications will also connect to the same MySQL backend database. The CIO has provided the following guidance for logging: Centrally view all current web access server logs. Search and filter web and application logs in near-real time. Retain log data for three months. How should these requirements be met? A. Deploy the application using AWS Elastic Beanstalk. Configure the environment type for Elastic Load Balancing and Auto Scaling. Create an Amazon RDS MySQL instance inside the Elastic Beanstalk stack. Configure the Elastic Beanstalk log options to stream logs to Amazon CloudWatch Logs. Set retention to 90 days. B. Deploy the application on Amazon EC2. Configure Elastic Load Balancing and Auto Scaling. Use an Amazon RDS MySQL instance for the database tier. Configure the application to store log files in Amazon S3. Use Amazon EMR to search and filter the data. Set an Amazon S3 lifecycle rule to expire objects after 90 days. C. Deploy the application using AWS Elastic Beanstalk. Configure the environment type for Elastic Load Balancing and Auto Scaling. Create the Amazon RDS MySQL instance outside the Elastic Beanstalk stack. Configure the Elastic Beanstalk log options to stream logs to Amazon CloudWatch Logs. Set retention to 90 days. D. Deploy the application on Amazon EC2. Configure Elastic Load Balancing and Auto Scaling. Use an Amazon RDS MySQL instance for the database tier. Configure the application to load streaming log data using Amazon Kinesis Data Firehouse into Amazon ES. Delete and create a new Amazon ES domain every 90 days. Correct Answer: A
AWS-SYSOPS Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 You have a web-style application with a stateless but CPU and memory-intensive web tier running on a cc2 8xlarge EC2 instance inside of a VPC The instance when under load is having problems returning requests within the SLA as defined by your business The application maintains its state in a DynamoDB table, but the data tier is properly provisioned and responses are consistently fast. How can you best resolve the issue of the application responses not meeting your SLA? A. Add another cc2 8xlarge application instance, and put both behind an Elastic Load Balancer B. Move the cc2 8xlarge to the same Availability Zone as the DynamoDB table C. Cache the database responses in ElastiCache for more rapid access D. Move the database from DynamoDB to RDS MySQL in scale-out read-replica configuration Correct Answer: A DynamoDB is automatically available across three facilities in an AWS Region. So moving in to a same AZ is not possible / necessary. In this case the DB layer is not the issue, the EC2 8xlarge is the issue; so add another one with a ELB in-front of it. See also: https://aws.amazon.com/dynamodb/faqs/
QUESTION 2 What are characteristics of Amazon S3? (Choose two.) A. Objects are directly accessible via a URL B. S3 should be used to host a relational database C. S3 allows you to store objects or virtually unlimited size D. S3 allows you to store virtually unlimited amounts of data E. S3 offers Provisioned IOPS Correct Answer: AD The total volume of data and number of objects you can store are unlimited. Individual Amazon S3 objects can range in size from a minimum of 0 bytes to a maximum of 5 terabytes. The largest object that can be uploaded in a single PUT is 5 gigabytes. For objects larger than 100 megabytes, customers should consider using the Multipart Upload capability. Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/s3/faqs/
QUESTION 3 What cloud service does Amazon S3 offer? A. Atomic updates across keys over the Internet B. Messaging over the Internet C. Storage over the Internet D. Object locking over the Internet Correct Answer: C Amazon S3 has a simple web services interface that you can use to store and retrieve any amount of data, at any time, from anywhere on the web. Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/Introduction.html
QUESTION 4 A user has enabled versioning on an S3 bucket. The user is using server side encryption for data at rest. If the user is supplying his own keys for encryption (SSE-C), what is recommended to the user for the purpose of security? A. The user should not use his own security key as it is not secure B. Configure S3 to rotate the user\\’s encryption key at regular intervals C. Configure S3 to store the user\\’s keys securely with SSL D. Keep rotating the encryption key manually at the client side Correct Answer: D AWS S3 supports client side or server side encryption to encrypt all data at Rest. The server side encryption can either have the S3 supplied AES-256 encryption key or the user can send the key along with each API call to supply his own encryption key (SSE-C). Since S3 does not store the encryption keys in SSE-C, it is recommended that the user should manage keys securely and keep rotating them regularly at the client side version.
QUESTION 5 Which of the following terms is NOT a key CloudWatch concept? A. Namespaces B. Units C. Time Stamps D. Indexes Correct Answer: D The terminology and concepts that are central to one\\’s understanding and use of Amazon Cloud-Watch are as follows: metrics, namespaces, dimensions, timestamps, units, statistics, periods, aggre-gation, alarms, and regions. Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudWatch/latest/DeveloperGuide/cloudwatch_concepts.html
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QUESTION 1 Which router port is used for dial-in access to the router for CLI management purposes and does not usually pass normal network traffic? A. Fast Ethernet B. channelized serial C. AUX D. Gigabit Ethernet Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which two commands identify the serial number of a Cisco router? (Choose two.) A. show run B. show inventory C. show environment D. show version E. show archive Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3 Which two commands are valid for copying a saved configuration to RAM? (Choose two.) A. copy startup-config running-config B. copy running-config startup-config C. copy tftp running-config D. copy running-config tftp E. copy tftp startup-config Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4 The pins on an RJ-45 cable plug are numbered from 1 through 8. When the metal pins of the plug are facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. Which two sets of pins are looped on an RJ-45 56K loopback plug? (Choose two.) A. pins 2 and 7 B. pins 2 and 8 C. pins 2 and 5 D. pins 1 and 7 E. pins 1 and 4 Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 5 What are two components of a WAN connection? (Choose two.) A. CSU/DSU B. router C. bridge D. hub E. switch Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6 Which command displays a list of file systems that are available on Cisco devices? A. show memory B. show directory C. show file system D. show version Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 TFTP is a simple protocol for transferring files, such as a Cisco IOS or configuration file, from one device to another. Which device can be configured as a TFTP server? A. Cisco Content Engine B. modem C. Cisco router D. CSU/DSU Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Which type of memory is used to permanently store Cisco IOS Software? A. NVRAM B. flash C. SRAM D. DRAM Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Which two statements about a SmartJack are true? (Choose two.) A. It provides signal conversion. B. It acts as a concentration point for dial-in and dial-out connections. C. It operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model. D. It provides channel testing. E. It regenerates the signal to compensate for signal degradation from line transmission. Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 11 Which command sends an echo request packet to the target host and then waits for an echo response message? A. echo B. access C. ping D. connect Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 When you deploy Cisco Catalyst 3850 Series switches, which two modes of operation can you choose from? A. Active mode and Standby mode B. Install mode and Bundle mode C. Boot mode and Run mode D. Exec mode and User mode Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Which type of port on a laptop is used to connect to an Ethernet port on a Cisco switch? A. DVI B. RJ-11 C. DB-9 D. RJ-45 Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 Which statement describes a role of AXL communications in the BLF Plug-in Service of the Cisco Unified Attendant Console? A. The AXL communications allow registered attendants to log in to Cisco Unified Communications Manager and receive calls. B. The AXL communications enable Device Resolution Manager to resolve the device statuses of operator and system devices. C. The AXL communications is required after installation to verify that the specified CTI manager or managers and Cisco Unified Attendant Console versions match. D. The AXL communications is required after installation to verify that the specified CTI manager or managers and Cisco Unified CM versions. Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucmac/cuaca/12_0_4/design_guides/CUACA_DG_120401.pdf
QUESTION 5 Which dial-peer configuration routes calls from SIP-based phones on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express to Cisco Unity Express? A. dial-peer voice 7000 voip destination-pattern 7000 session protocol sipv2 session target ipv4: 10.3.6.127 codec g711alaw B. dial-peer voice 7000 voip destination-pattern 7000 session protocol sipv2 session target ipv4: 10.3.6.127 codec ilbc C. dial-peer voice 7000 voip destination-pattern 7000 session protocol sipv2 session target ipv4: 10.3.6.127 codec g711ulaw D. dial-peer voice 7000 voip destination-pattern 7000 session protocol sipv2 session target ipv4: 10.3.6.127 codec g729r6 Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice-unified-communications/unityexpress/62609-tdcmecue.html
QUESTION 6 Which two Cisco Unity Connection logs are used to troubleshoot issues with Message Waiting Indicators? (Choose two.) A. Connection IMAP Server B. Connection Mailbox Sync C. Connection Notifier D. Connection Message Transfer Agent E. Connection Conversation Manager Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 8 In the integration of Cisco Unity Connection using SIP, which SIP trunk security profile option is required for MWI to work correctly? A. Accept out-of-dialog refer B. Accept replaces header C. Accept unsolicited notification D. Accept presence subscription Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which function of the Cisco IM and Presence high availability solution is true? A. When the server has been restored to a normal state, user sessions remain on the backup server. B. When an event takes place, the end user sessions are not moved from the failed server to the backup. C. When the server has been restored, the server automatically fails back. D. When a high availability event takes place, the end user sessions are moved from the failed server to the backup. Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-manager-impresence-service/200958-IM-and-Presence-Server-High-Availability.html
QUESTION 10 An engineer must configure a test user mailbox in a newly deployed Cisco Unity Express module. Which console command set reflects the correct configuration in this scenario?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 Which two items are types of application isolation options available when Kubernetes is deployed with the ACI CNI plugin? (Choose two.) A. VM Isolation B. Cluster Isolation C. Server Isolation D. Process Isolation E. Namespace Isolation Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 2
Which Python snippets create an application policy named OrderProcess that contains two application endpoint groups under Tenant SuperEats using direct calls to the ACI REST API? Assume that authentication and library imports are correct.
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which two components are required from the Cisco Intersight REST API Authentication? (Choose two.) A. SHA256 hash of the message body and message headers. B. SHA256 hash of the message body, including empty message bodies. C. RSA private key with a key size of 2048. D. RSA private key with a key size of 1024. E. SHA384 hash of the message body, excluding empty message bodies. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4 Which programming language are the Cisco UCS Director custom workflow tasks written in? A. C++ B. Python C. Java D. Cloupia Script Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the items to complete the request to retrieve the current firmware of Cisco UCS devices from the Cisco Intersight API. Not all items are used. Select and Place:
QUESTION 6 How should the Kubernetes manifests be modified to allow Kubernetes environment integration with Cisco ACI? A. The metadata section must contain the Cisco APIC management IP. B. The manifest does not have to be changed, but the Kubernetes object is not discovered by Cisco ACI if this is not defined in the manifest. C. The manifests must include ACI EPG reference. D. No change is needed to perform this action. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 What is the network bootstrap program used by Cisco NX-OS iPXE? A. NETBOOT B. NX-OS iPXE C. iPXE-POAP D. Mini-OS Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the correct code snippets into the Python code to create a new application profile “WebApp” using the ACI REST API. Not all options are used. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9 Which Ansible playbook creates a new VLAN 10 named Web?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Which procedure accesses the REST API browser within Cisco UCS Director? A. Send an HTTP GET request to https://[UCS Director IP]/api/get_resources/. B. Log in as the user REST/user to access the REST API interface. C. Enable the Developer menu. Select Orchestration in the UI, then select the REST API browser tab. D. Select the API browser from the Cisco UCS Director End User Portal catalog of services. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 What is the default data encoding for the response output of the ACI APIC API inspector? A. CSV B. JSON C. XML D. YAML Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which statement about synchronous and asynchronous API calls is true? A. Synchronous API calls wait to return until a response has been received. B. Synchronous communication is harder to follow and troubleshoot. C. Synchronous API calls must always use a proxy server. D. Asynchronous communication uses more overhead for client authentication. Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains a server named Server1. You open Review Options in the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard, and then you click View script. You need to ensure that you can use the script to promote Server1 to a domain controller. Which file extension should you use to save the script?
A. .pal
B. .bat
C. .xml
D. .cmd
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The View Script button is used to view the corresponding PowerShell script The PowerShell script extension is .ps1, The Answer could logically be either a .cmd
file or a .bat file.
According to
PAL – Settings file created by Corel Painter or Palette of colors used by Dr. Halo bitmap images BAT – DOS batch file used to execute commands with the
Windows Command Prompt (cmd.exe); contains series of line commands that typically might be entered at the DOS command prompt; most commonly used
to start programs and run maintenance utilities within Windows. XML – XML (Extensible Markup Language) data file that uses tags to define objects and object
attributes; formatted much like an.HTML document, but uses custom tags to define objects and the data within each object; can be thought of as a text-based
database. CMD – Batch file that contains a series of commands executed in order; introduced with Windows NT, but can be run by DOS or Windows NT systems;
similar to a.BAT file, but is run by CMD.EXE instead of COMMAND.COM.
QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains 500 client computers that run Windows 8. All of the client computers connect to the Internet by using a web proxy. You deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the DNS Server server role installed. You configure all of the client computers to use Server1 as their primary DNS server. You need to prevent Server1 from attempting to resolve Internet hostnames for the client computers. What should you do on Server1?
A. Create a primary zone named “.”.
B. Configure the Security settings of the contoso.com zone.
C. Create a zone delegation for GlobalNames.contoso.com.
D. Create a stub zone named “root”.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: 300-207 dumps
Explanation: When you install DNS on a Windows server that does not have a connection to the Internet, the zone for the domain is created and a root zone, also known as a dot zone, is also created. This root zone may prevent access to the Internet for DNS and for clients of the DNS. If there is a root zone, there are no other zones other than those that are listed with DNS, and you cannot configure forwarders or root hint servers. Root domain This is the top of the tree, representing an unnamed level; it is sometimes shown as two empty quotation marks (“), indicating a null value. When used in a DNS domain name, it is stated by a trailing period (.) to designate that the name is located at the root or highest level of the domain hierarchy. In this instance, the DNS domain name is considered to be complete and points to an exact location in the tree of names. Names stated this way are called fully qualified domain names (FQDNs). DNS Domain Name Hierarchy:
QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 user accounts that reside in an organizational unit (OU) named 0U1. You need to ensure that a user named User1 can link and unlink Group Policy objects (GPOs) to OU1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to User1. What should you do?
A. Modify the permissions on OU1.
B. Run the Set-GPPermission cmdlet.
C. Add User1 to the Group Policy Creator Owners group.
D. Modify the permissions on the User1 account.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 22
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The server contains the disks configured as shown in the following table.
You need to create a volume that can store up to 3 TB of user files. The solution must ensure that the user files are available if one of the disks in the volume fails. What should you create?
A. a mirrored volume on Disk 1 and Disk 4
B. a mirrored volume on Disk 2 and Disk 3
C. a RAID-5 volume on Disk 1, Disk 2, and Disk 3
D. a spanned volume on Disk 0 and Disk 4
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A mirrored volume provides an identical twin of the selected volume. All data written to the mirrored volume is written to both volumes, which results in disk
the capacity of only 50 percent. Any volume can be mirrored, including the system and boot volumes. The disk that you select for the shadow volume does not need to
be identical to the original disk in size, or in its number of tracks and cylinders. This means that you do not have to replace a failed disk with an identical model.
The unused area that you select for the shadow volume cannot be smaller than the original volume. If the area that you select for the shadow volume is larger than
the original, the extra space on the shadow disk can be configured as another volume.
Dynamic disks provide features that basic disks do not, such as the ability to create volumes that span multiple disks (spanned and striped volumes) and the ability
to create fault-tolerant volumes (mirrored and RAID-5 volumes).
The following operations can be performed only on dynamic disks:
Create and delete simple, spanned, striped, mirrored, and RAID-5 volumes. Extend a simple or spanned volume. Remove a mirror from a mirrored volume or
break the mirrored volume into two volumes. Repair mirrored or RAID-5 volumes. Reactivate a missing or offline disk. You need at least two dynamic disks to
create a mirrored volume. Mirrored volumes are fault-tolerant and use RAID-1, which provides redundancy by creating two identical copies of a volume.
Mirrored volumes cannot be extended.
Both copies (mirrors) of the mirrored volume share the same drive letter.
QUESTION 23
What should you do for server core so it can be managed from another server 2012 R2?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
H. 8
I. 9
J. 10
K. 11
L. 12
M. 13
N. 14
O. 15
Correct Answer: H Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: 4) Configure Remote Management is already “Enabled”. 8) Network Settings You can configure the IP address to be assigned automatically by a DHCP Server or you can assign a static IP address manually. This option allows you to configure DNS Server settings for the server as well.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
On Server1, you create a printer named Printer1. You share Printer1 and publish Printer1 in Active Directory. You need to provide a group named Group1 with the
ability to manage Printer1.
What should you do?
A. From Print Management, configure the Sharing settings of Printer1.
B. From Active Directory Users and Computers, configure the Security settings of Server1- Printer1.
C. From Print Management, configure the Security settings of Printer1.
D. From Print Management, configure the Advanced settings of Printer1.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Set permissions for print servers
Note:
Open Print Management.
In the left pane, clickPrint Servers, right-click the App1icable print server, and then click properties. On the Security tab, underground or users names, click a user or
group for which you want to set permissions.
UnderPermissions for <user or group name>, select theAlloworDenycheck boxes for the permissions listed as needed.
To edit special permissions, click advanced.
On the permissions tab, click a user group, and then click edit. In the Permission Entry dialog box, select theAlloworDenycheck boxes for the permissions that you
want to edit.
Reference: Set Permissions for Print Servers
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Exam Code: 70-413
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Updated: Sep 14, 2017
Q&As: 206
QUESTION 1 You implement and authorize the new DHCP servers. You import the server configurations and the scope configurations from PA1 and AM1.
You need to ensure that clients can obtain DHCP address assignments after you shut down PA1 and AM1. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do?
A. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Remove-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
B. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Activate the scopes.
C. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools. D. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet Activate the scopes.
070-413 exam Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference: The Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet gets one or more lease records from the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service.
The Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet adds a new IPv4 address lease on the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service. This cmdlet is only
supported for DHCP server service running on Windows Server® 2012. QUESTION 2 You need to recommend a management solution for the GPOs. The solution must meet the technical 70-413 dumps requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)
B. Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP)
C. Microsoft System Center 2012 Operations Manager
D. Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM) Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
* Scenario:
/ All changes to Group Policies must be logged.
/ Administrators in the Paris office need to deploy a series of desktop restrictions to the entire company by using Group Policy.
* Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack
Windows Vista Enterprise helps global organizations and enterprises with complex IT infrastructures lower IT costs, reduce risk, and stay connected. The
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What is the Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack?
The Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP) for Software Assurance is an add-on subscription license available to Software Assurance customers. It uses
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MDOP facilitates accelerated deployment and manageability of Windows through these innovative technologies– available only to Windows Software Assurance
customers.
Reference: Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack QUESTION 3 You are planning the decommissioning of research.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that an administrator named Admin5 in the research department can manage the user accounts that are migrated to contoso.com. The
solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to Admin5.
What should you do before you migrate the user accounts?
A. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADPrincipalGroupMembershipcmdlet.
B. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then add Admin5 to the Account Operators group.
C. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then run the Delegation of Control Wizard.
D. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADCentralAccessPolicyMembercmdlet.
070-413 pdf Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
* Scenario: Decommission the research.contoso.com domain. All of the users and the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in research.contoso.com will be migrated to
contoso.com.
Reference: Delegation of Control Wizard QUESTION 4 You need to recommend changes to the DNS environment that support the implementation of the sales.contoso.com domain. The solution must ensure that the
users in all of the domains can resolve both Internet names and the names of the servers in all of the internal domains.
What should you recommend?
A. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a reverse lookup zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to
contoso.com.
B. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, add a conditional forwarder to the sales.contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to
the DNS servers of the company’s ISP.
C. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, create a zone delegation in the contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the
contoso.com DNS servers.
D. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to sales.contoso.com.
On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a reverse zone.
70-413 vce Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Scenario: The client computers in sales.contoso.com will use the sales.contoso.com domain controllers as their DNS servers.
QUESTION NO: 5
In the SmartBPM methodology, when should project enablement training (role-based training)
begin? (Choose one)
A. Project Initiation
B. Elaboration
C. Inception
D. None of the above
070-413 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6
The full scope of the Directly Capturing Objectives (DCO) session is defined as running the
Application Profiler during the Inception phase. True or False
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 7
From a flow rule, you can see links to what elements of the flow? (Choose four)
A. Various shapes in the flow
B. Requirements
C. Starting models
D. Flow-wide Local Actions
E. Entire flows 70-413 dumps Answer: A,B,D,E
QUESTION NO: 8 The following action occurs during all phases of the SmartBPM® Methodology: (Choose one) A. Quality checks B. Governance C. Directly Capturing Objectives D. All of the above Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 9 Use case rules can reference or be referenced by which other rules? (Choose 3) A. Flows B. Activities C. Requirements D. Validation rules E. Properties 070-413 pdf Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 10 The program roadmap presents the big picture for solution development. This roadmap is divided
into which are divided into which are made up of . (Choose one) A. Use cases, slivers, projects B. Projects, use cases, slivers C. Use cases, projects, slivers D. Projects, slivers, use cases Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11 It is a best practice to create an inventory of existing objectives, requirements, use cases, and
other project artifacts because: (Choose Two) A. Reusing artifacts saves time and effort B. These artifacts can be used to enter information into the Application Profiler C. These artifacts can be used to extract information from the Project Management Framework D. These artifacts are required to create a new application 70-413 vce Answer: A, B
QUESTION NO: 12 When these artifacts are combined they result in a checklist that shows the business has received
the expected value from this application: (Choose two) A. Objectives B. Requirements C. Use cases D. Project scenarios Answer: A,B
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70-417 Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012 is affirmation from Microsoft for its experts to propel their expert profession. Microsoft 70-417 exam is a prized ownership in today’s focused world and gives you a chance to pick up learning and comprehension of Microsoft items.
Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 70-417
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Total Questions: 427 Q&As
Updated on: Apr 06, 2017
As Microsoft pushes forward with Server 2012, the demand for IT professionals to stay current and upgrade their skills becomes more imperative. This mega-test, which is a combination of the 70-410, 70-411, and 70-417 exam, serves as an upgrade for Windows administrators who currently hold the following Microsoft designations:
Microsoft Certified Systems Administrator (MCSA): Windows Server 2008
Microsoft Certified IT Professional (MCITP): Virtualization Administrator on Windows Server 2008 R2
MCITP: Enterprise Messaging Administrator 2010
MCITP: Lync Server Administrator 2010
MCITP: SharePoint Administrator 2010
MCITP: Enterprise Desktop Administrator on Windows 7
Passitdump Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-417 Exam Q&As
QUESTION 89 Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed.Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
You need to ensure that VM1 can use more CPU time than the other virtual machines when the CPUs on
Server1 is under a heavy load.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
B. Resource controls provide you with several ways to control the way that Hyper-V allocates resources to
the virtual machines. 70-417 Exam Resource control is used in the event where you need to adjust the computing resources of a virtual machine, you can reconfigure the resources to meet the changing needs. You can also specify
resource controls to automate how resources are allocated to virtual machines.References: Exam Ref 70-410, Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure virtual machine settings, p. 144 Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 7: Hyper-V Virtualization, Lesson 2: Deploying and configuring virtual machines QUESTION 90 Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed.Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
You install Windows Server 2012 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
You need to ensure that the next time. VM2 restarts, you can connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization Correct Answer: G Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
G. Configure the BIOS of the computer to enable PXE boot and set the boot order so that it is booting
the network is first.
References:
Exam Ref 70-410, Installing and
Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure
virtual machine settings, p. 144 Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter
7: Hyper-V Virtualization, Lesson 2: Deploying and configuring virtual machines
QUESTION 91 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains the servers
shown in the following table.
You need to ensure that you can use the Server Manager on DC1 to manage DC2.
Which two tasks should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install the Windows PowerShell 2.0 engine on DC1.
B. Install Microsoft .NET Framework 4 on DC2.
C. Install Windows Management Framework 3.0 on DC2.
D. Install Remote Server Administration Tools on DC1.
E. Install Remote Server Administration Tools on DC2. Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
In Windows Server 2012, you can use the Server Manager to perform management tasks on remote servers.
Remote management is enabled by default on servers that are running Windows Server 2012. To manage
a server remotely by using Server Manager, you add the server to the Server Manager server pool.
You can use Server Manager to manage remote servers that are running Windows Server 2008 and
Windows Server 2008 R2, but the following updates are required to fully manage these older operating
systems.
Windows Management Framework 3.0 To use this release of Server Manager to access and manage
remote servers that are running Windows Server 2008 or Windows Server 2008 R2, you must first install
.NET Framework 4.0, and then install Windows Management Framework 3.0 on those servers.
Reference: 70-417 Exam Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 2: Deploying servers, p. 80
QUESTION 92 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member
servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You log on to Server1.
You need to retrieve a list of the active TCP connections on Server2.
Which command should you run from Server1?
A. netstat> server2
B. warm get server2
C. winrs -r:server2netstat
D. dsquery * -scope base -at the trip,server2 Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
This command-line tool enables administrators to remotely execute most Cmd.exe commands using the
WSManagement protocol.
References:
QUESTION 93 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
On a server named Corel, you perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.
You join Corel to the adatum.com domain. You need to ensure that you can use Event Viewer on Server1 to view the event logs on Core1.
What should you do on Core1?
A. Run the Enable-NetFirewallRulecmdlet.
B. Run the Disable-NetFirewallRulecmdlet.
C. Install Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).
D. Install Windows Management Framework. Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server
2012. The domain contains a server named Server1.
You open Review Options in the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard, and then you
click View script.
You need to ensure that you can use the script to promote Server1 to a domain controller.
Which file extension should you use to save the script?
A. .bat
B. .ps1
C. .xml
D. .cmd Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
A PowerShell script is the equivalent of a Windows CMD or MS-DOS batch file, the file should be saved
with a .ps1 extension, e.g. MyScript.ps1
QUESTION 95 In an isolated test environment, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of
Windows Server 2012 R2. The test environment does not have Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)
installed.
You install the Active Directory Domain Services server role on Server1.
You need to configure Server1 as a domain controller.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Install-ADDSDomain
B. Install-ADDSForest
C. Install-ADDSDomainController
D. Install-WindowsFeature Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:Explanation:
Install-ADDSDomainController Installs a domain controller in Active Directory. Install- ADDSDomain
Installs a new Active Directory domain configuration. Install-ADDSForest Installs a new Active Directory
forest configuration. Install-windows feature Installs one or more Windows Server roles, role services, or
features on either the local or a specified remote server that is running Windows Server 2012 R2. This
the cmdlet is equivalent to and replaces Add- WindowsFeature, the cmdlet that was used to install roles, role
services, and features.
C:\PS>Install-ADDSForest -DomainName corp.contoso.com -CreateDNSDelegation DomainMode
Win2008 -ForestMode Win2008R2 -DatabasePath “d:\NTDS” -SysvolPath
“d:\SYSVOL” LogPath “e:\Logs”Installs a new forest named corp.contoso.com, creates a DNS delegation
in the contoso.com domain, set domain functional level to Windows Server 2008 R2 and sets forest
functional level to Windows Server 2008, installs the Active Directory database and SYSVOL on the D:\
drive installs the log files on the E:\ drive and has the server automatically restart after AD DS installation is
complete and prompts the user to provide and confirm the 70-417 Exam Directory Services Restore Mode (DSRM)
password.
QUESTION 96 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain
controller named DC5. DC5 has a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to uninstall Active Directory from DC5 manually.
Which tool should you use?
A. The Remove-ADComputercmdlet
B. The ntdsutil.exe command
C. The dsamain.exe command
D. The Remove-WindowsFeaturecmdlet Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three domain
controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware failure.
You plan to remove DC3 from the domain.
You log on to DC3.
You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3.
What should you do?
A. Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
B. Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
C. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
D. Run dcdiag /test:DNS.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Netlogon service creates a log file that contains all the locator resource records and places the logfile in
the following location:
References: QUESTION 98 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to create a 3-TB virtual hard disk (VHD) on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. New-StorageSubsytemVirtualDisk
B. New-VirtualDisk
C. Server Manager
D. Computer Management Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:70-417 Exam
NOTA Share and Storage will only let you create a VHD on a storage pool NOT B Server Manager, can’t
find where to create this. NOT C Is this PowerShell? the command should be NEW-VHD
D Computer management is the only valid yet nonavailable answer. I’d be left with C, hoping they’d have
the good PowerShell command.
Note:
From @L_Ranger, Computer Management is not an option anymore.
Back to New-VirtualDisk
Old explanation : D (Computer management)
Explanation:
For Server 2012: With the
Server Manager snap-in, you can create and attach a.VHD file directly. Figure A shows the drop-down box
where a.A VHD file can be created and attached. Figure A
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QUESTION 1 You configure a Cisco Unity Express module to integrate with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. You can use the following command to connect to the module from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express CLI: ABC_CORP#service-module integrated-Service-Engine 0/0 session Trying 10.1.10.2, 2002 … Open se-10-1-10-1# However, you cannot pint the module from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express and cannot use a web browser to connect the module. You see this message: ABC_CORP#ping 10.1.10.1 Type escae sequence to abort. Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 10.1.10.1, timeout is 2 seconds: Success rate is 0 percent (0/5) How can you fix this problem? A. Enable ICMP and web service on the Cisco Unity Express module. B. Enable the ISM interface on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. C. Add an IP address to the ISM interface in the same subnet as Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. D. Add a host route from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express to Cisco Unity via the ISM interface. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which two transfer types are used by Cisco Unity Connection to process more calls quickly? (Choose two.) A. No Holding Transfer B. Release to VPIM C. Supervise Transfer D. Release to Switch E. Say Good-Bye Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 3 What is the maximum number of users that can be imported into Cisco Unity Express from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express at one time? A. 200 B. 100 C. 500 D. 50 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 When importing users into Cisco Unity Connection by using AXL, what can cause a user not to be listed in the import view? A. if the user primary extension is set to “none” on Cisco Unified Communications Manager B. if the userdigest credentials are not set C. if the userwas imported into Cisco Unified Communications Manager by usingLDAP D. if the user is not assigned to the Standard CTI Enabled access control group on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 What is the procedure for importing users from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express into Cisco Unity Express? A. Create the username and password in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, configure Cisco Unity Express with the CLI administrator username and password, and use the CLI synchronization command under telephony-services to import as many users as are supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. B. Create the username and password in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, configure Cisco Unity Express with the web administrator username and password, and click Synchronize Information under the Administration menu to import as many users as are supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. C. Create the username and password in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, configure Cisco Unity Express with the CLI administrator username and password, and use the CLI synchronization command under telephony-services to import up to 200 users from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. D. Create the username and password in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, configure Cisco Unity Express with the web administrator username and password, and click Synchronize Information under the Administration menu to import up to 100 users from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. E. Create the username and password in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, configure Cisco Unity Express with the web administrator username and password, and click Synchronize Information under the Administration menu to import up to 200 users from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6 Which can be used in the jabber-config.xml file to enable UDS? A. True B. True C. UDS D. UDS Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 You are trying to add Cisco VCS to Cisco TMS, but the addition is failing. Which three scenarios might be causing this failure? (Choose three.) A. Cisco TMS is running a version earlier than 12.5. B. Cisco TMS was not upgraded before adding Cisco VCS. C. Cisco TMS and Cisco VCS do not have synchronized time settings. D. SNMP is not enabled on Cisco VCS. E. UDP port 161 is blocked on the network. F. The management address on Cisco VCS does not match the Cisco TMS IP address. Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 8 Which three options are used when setting up connectivity between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Presence Server? (Choose three.) A. SIP trunk B. conference bridge C. SIP trunk security profile D. SIP profile E. remote destination profile Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 9 In which two scenarios would a caller who is calling into the Cisco Unity Connection general pilot number hear the opening greeting of the voice-mail system and be prompted for a user ID and PIN? (Choose two.) A. non-subscriber B. subscriber who sends the calling number C. subscriber who does not send the calling number D. A SIP phone user will always be prompted for a user ID and PIN. E. An SCCP phone user will always be prompted for a user ID and PIN. F. The scenario is invalid. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10 Which jabber-config.xml variable do you use to allow remote Jabber users to connect using Collaboration Edge? A. B. C. D. YES E. TRUE Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Where do you navigate to within Cisco TMS to place a call? A. Systems > Navigator > Endpoint > Call Status B. Systems > Monitoring > Endpoint > Place Call C. Endpoint > Navigator > Call Status D. Booking > List Conferences > Place Call E. Systems > Navigator > Manage Dial Plan > Place Call F. Systems > Navigator > Provisioning > Place Call Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 In which three of the following cases can VPIM Networking be used for messaging? (Choose three.) A. Cisco Unity systems where the partner Microsoft Exchange Servers are in different Active Directory forests B. Cisco Unity with Microsoft Exchange 2000 or Microsoft Exchange 2003, and Cisco Unity with Lotus Domino C. Cisco Unity and Cisco Unity Express D. Cisco Unity and the Cisco Presence Server E. Cisco Unity and Cisco Unified Communication Manager F. Cisco Unity and Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 13 Which codec is supported in Cisco Unity Express? A. G.711 B. G.721 C. G.729 D. Q.850 E. Q.931 F. Q.2931 Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 In Cisco Unity Express, which two Call Handling options can you configure on the Voice Mail tab of the GUI? (Choose two.) A. distribution list B. application parameter settings script C. business schedule D. voice mail operator number E. calling search space 300-085 exam Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2 When using Cisco Unified Communications Manager IM and Presence Service in a federated network configuration, which statement about Message Archiver is true? A. The sender cluster sends the message to the remote cluster before archiving it. B. Message Archiver is not supported in a federated network configuration. C. The sender cluster archives the message before sending it to the remote cluster. D. The message is archived on the remote cluster only. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which three system components are needed to provision a new endpoint in Cisco TMS? (Choose three.) A. IP address B. MAC address C. SNMP community name D. configuration template E. enable remote access F. persistent settings G. E164 alias H. gatekeeper 300-085 dumps Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 4 Which messaging interface provides support for an Apple iPhone, Android, and Blackberry? A. Cisco Unity Connection B. Cisco Unity Express C. Cisco Unity D. Cisco Unity Mobile Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 You have configured a Cisco Unity Express server that uses the G.711 codec. You want to send outbound messages in a format that uses lower bandwidth. However, you want to keep the quality of the incoming message high. Which two tasks should you perform? (Choose two.) A. Convert the incoming messages to G.729a. B. Keep the incoming messages as G.711. C. Convert the outgoing message to 64 kb/s using G.729a. D. Convert the outgoing messages to G.726. E. Send the outgoing messages in the G.711 format. F. Store the message using the original codec, but convert it to 64 kb/s for outgoing. 300-085 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6 A user that is logged into Cisco Jabber reports that their availability status is incorrect for most of the contacts in their contact list. Which four service traces give a correct indication of the issue? (Choose four.) A. Cisco XCP Connection Manager B. Cisco XCP Router C. Cisco Presence Engine D. Cisco SIP Proxy E. Cisco Text Conferencing Manager F. Cisco Client Profile Agent G. Cisco XCP Web Connection Manager Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 7 Which four pieces of information does the Cisco TMS Provisioning Extension service provide the VCS? (Choose four.) A. user B. device C. dial plan D. routing rules E. zone information F. phone book G. FindMe H. gateway 300-085 vce Correct Answer: ABFG
QUESTION 8 Which two options are types of directory handlers? (Choose two.) A. voice-enabled B. phone keypad C. forwarded rules D. direct rules E. standard hours F. closed hours Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9 Which Cisco TMS extension integrates Cisco TMS with IBM Lotus Domino Server 7.0.x, 8.0.x, 8.5.x? A. TMSXE B. TMSXN C. TMSBA D. TMSPE 300-085 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which two statements are true about integrating Cisco Unity Connection with an LDAP directory and creating users by importing data from Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Unity Connection users will not automatically authenticate against the LDAP directory when Cisco Unified Communications Manager is integrated with the LDAP. B. Cisco Unity Connection users will automatically authenticate against the LDAP directory when Cisco Unified Communications Manager is integrated with the LDAP. C. Separate passwords must be maintained for Cisco Unity Connection web applications and Cisco Unified Communications Manager web applications. D. Automatic synchronization updates the Cisco Unity Connection database with new data for new and existing users when you add users to the LDAP directory. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11 The administrator of a Cisco Unity Connection system would like to set up a new employee and assign him a password of 123. The system gives him an error when he attempts to save the user. Which two of the following settings sections and features of Cisco Unity Connection should the administrator change to set up the user? (Choose two.) A. User Template > Maximum Credential Length B. Authentication Rules > Minimum Credential Length C. User Template > Check for Trivial Passwords D. Restriction Tables > Minimum Credential Length E. Restriction Tables > Check for Trivial Passwords F. Authentication Rules > Check for Trivial Passwords 300-085 dumps Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 12 What are two types of integration between Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.) A. SCCP integration B. TIMG integration C. SIP integration D. PIMG integration E. H.323 integration Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 13 In order for Cisco Unified Presence to show the presence status of an IP phone, which two configuration steps must be completed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server? (Choose two.) A. Check the Allow Presence Status check box. B. Associate the end device with the user. C. Allow the SIP publish trunk to forward presence status messages. D. Associate the directory number with the user. E. Enable Cisco Unified Personal Communicator Status flag. 300-085 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 14 Which three are valid system connectivity statuses for systems that are automatically added to Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose three.) A. Inaccessible B. Failed C. Connected D. Reachable on Public Internet E. Behind Firewall F. Online G. Remote Site Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 15 By default, what are two options that are presented to callers for directed calls into a Cisco Unity Connection system? (Choose two.) A. Log in to their mailbox with their PIN. B. Listen to the opening greeting. C. Leave a message if forwarder has a mailbox. D. Enter user ID and PIN. E. Log in to remote mailbox. 300-085 vce Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 16 Which three functions are executed using the Cisco TMS? (Choose three.) A. endpoint system upgrades B. edit call control C. manage phone books D. provision Jabber Instant Messaging E. create voicemail account F. create new conference Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 17 Which service must you restart, in order to enable file transfers on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager IM and Presence server? A. Cisco SIP Proxy B. Cisco Presence Engine C. Cisco XCP Router D. Cisco Sync Agent 300-085 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18 Which troubleshooting tool is used to check and verify the individual modules in the Cisco Unified Presence server? A. Cisco Unified Real Time Monitoring Tool B. Cisco Unified Presence System Troubleshooter C. Cisco Unified Presence Monitoring Tool D. Cisco Unified Presence Viewer Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19 The Cisco TMS administrator is trying to add participants while booking a new conference. Which three options are presented? (Choose three.) A. endpoints B. users C. Cisco MCUs D. multiway address E. directory numbers synched from Cisco Unified Communications Manager F. SIP URIs synched from Cisco Unified Communications Manager G. video AutoAttendant numbers 300-085 dumps Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 20 Which service parameter must be configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to enable SIP PUBLISH on a SIP trunk as the mechanism for presence interaction with Cisco Unified Presence? A. IM and Presence publish trunk B. route class trunk C. processing on QSIG trunk D. fail call over SIP trunk Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21 What is the maximum number of users that can be imported into Cisco Unity Express from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express at one time? A. 200 B. 100 C. 500 D. 50 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22 A company that wants to deploy Cisco Jabber is deciding whether to use UDS or EDI for contact resolution. Which three pieces of information should the company consider? (Choose three.) A. SSO cannot be used with UDS. B. With EDI, Active Directory is the only LDAP server that can be used. C. Cisco Unified Communication Manager needs to be integrated with the LDAP server through both UDS and EDI. D. Queries to the LDAP server can be offloaded by using UDS. E. EDI uses native Windows APIs to retrieve contact data from the directory service. F. EDI is the contact source that is used for Cisco Expressway Mobile and Remote Access. 300-085 pdf Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 23 Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP integration with Cisco Unity Connection requires which configuration component to connect to voicemail? A. Route Pattern B. Hunt Group C. Route Group D. Hunt Pilot E. Trunk Group Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24 Under System Settings in Cisco Unity Connection, where do you assign the cluster ID? A. general configuration B. cluster C. enterprise parameters D. service parameters E. licenses F. schedules G. roles H. authentication rules 300-085 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25 When troubleshooting a single Cisco Unified Presence user complaint, which is the Cisco recommended tool to start the troubleshooting process? A. Cisco Unified Real Time Monitoring Tool B. Cisco Unified Presence System Troubleshooter C. Cisco Unified Presence Monitoring Tool D. Cisco Unified Presence Viewer Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26 Which set is a list of valid functions in Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? A. registration, reporting, provisioning, and remote control B. reporting, registration, provisioning, and asset management C. provisioning, reporting, asset management, and call control D. call control, asset management, reporting, and registration E. reporting and phonebook 300-085 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 27 Which three components are the minimum needed to enable the FindMe feature for the users of an enterprise? (Choose three.) A. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite B. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite Provisioning Extension C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager with Extension Mobility Service D. Video Communication Server E. Cisco IM and Presence F. CiscoWebex On Premises deployment G. Cisco TelePresence Conductor Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 28 What is the maximum number of custom auto-attendant applications that you can set up in Cisco Unity Express? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 F. 6 300-085 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29 Which type of video service does Cisco Unity Connection use to provide video services? A. multipoint control unit B. video control services C. conductor D. Cisco Presence Service E. MediaSense Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 30 Which two types of mailboxes are supported by Cisco Unity Express? (Choose two.) A. personal B. general delivery C. group D. mailing list E. voice F. temporary 300-085 pdf Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 31 In Cisco Unity Connection, which two elements are used to provide call management? (Choose two.) A. Call Handlers B. Directory Handlers C. Route Patterns D. Hunt Lists E. Translation patterns Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 32 In Cisco Unity Connection, which two methods can you use to segregate the global dial and message addressing space? (Choose two.) A. SIP trunk B. search spaces C. route patterns D. translation patterns E. partitions F. hunt pilot 300-085 vce Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 33 Which two parameters are required when you configure the Voice Profile for Internet Mail location on Cisco Unity Express? (Choose two.) A. domain name or IP address B. destination type C. display name D. location ID E. dial ID F. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol domain name Correct Answer: AD
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